Physiology MCQs for Short Service Commission
We call the Physiology as “The study of animal functions including human. In physiology, investigation may be done with respect to the cells, tissues, organ system and overall whole body of the organism.
Study of human body is the example of Physiology because it is that branch which deals with the living organism or matter as cells, tissues or organs where physical and chemical phenomenon involved.
If you want to become a doctor then physiology helps to work in lab with efficiency or in clinical settings. But this is not limited, one can work with medicine and human body. It also helps to medical representatives.
There are generally five types of Physiology which are Physiology, Cell Physiology, Organ Physiology, System Physiology or Pathological Physiology.
A physiologist can also become a doctor as it is being enrolled in Pakistan Forces like Army, Navy and PAF as a doctor who join Pak Forces through Short Service Regular Commission.
If we think that is it a course then we say that Physiology is “a scientific discipline that is necessary to medical practice and human health” particularly related to the human body functions from tissues, cells and system of organs.
In the following Physiology MCQs with answers are given. Some candidates ask that they want to prepare Physiology MCQs online then this is best place to learn about Physiology.
Shaheen Forces Academy prepares students who want to join Pak Army, PAF or Pak Navy as a Medical Officer or M-Cadet. It provides all types of tests and material regarding initial tests of M-Cadet. In medical related tests, area of Physiology MCQs in one of the parts of it, so that candidates who have applied for commissioning in Army, Navy and Air Force through Short Service Commission, they can easily prepare their initial academic tests.
All these questions are just like Physiology MCQs bank which clearly helps for all types of entry tests or academic tests related to the Physiology.
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Best Physiology MCQs for Short Service Commission
The intrinsic factor for vitamins B12 absorption is produced in the_____?
A. Liver
B. Stomach
C. Pancreas
D. Duodenum
Peristalsis involves coordinated contraction and relaxation_____?
A. Above and below the food bolus
B. Lateral and medial to food bolus
C. Dorsal and ventral to food bolus
D. None of the above
Which is not produced enteroendocrinally______?
A. Intrinsic factor
B. Secretin
C. Motilin
D. GIP
The most important action of Secretin is to_____?
A. neutralize the acid from the stomach
B. increase secretion of bicarbonates by pancreas
C. decrease gastric secretion
D. Cause contraction of pyloric sphincter
Trypsin is an activator of all of the following enzymes EXCEPT_____?
A. Chymotrypsinogen
B. Pepsinogen
C. Proelastase
D. Procolipase
Which of the following secretions has a very high pH____?
A. Gastric juice
B. Pancreatic juice
C. Bile in gall bladder
D. Saliva
Of the following is a reflex mediated by vagus ?
A. Bile flow from liver
B. Pancreatic secretion of bicarbonate
C. Cephalic phase of gastric secretion
D. Mucous secretion from the Brunner’s glands
Secretin is secreted by______?
A. Duodenum
B. Pancreas
C. Liver
D. Stomach
Peristalsis in the gut is due to _____?
A. Preperistalitic intestinal secretion
B. Mecharical distension
C. Simultaneous action of circular and longitudinal muscles
D. Extrinsic nervous influence
The final sugars in intestinal chyme are______?
A. Glucose & fructose
B. Ribose & mannose
C. Ribose & xylulos
D. Xylulose & fructose
Cephalic phase of gastric secretion is mediated by _______?
A. Neuro hormones
B. Vagus
C. Hormones
D. Gastric
Most potent stimulus for secretin is______?
A. Dilattion of intestine
B. Acid chyme
C. Protein
D. Fat
Cholagogues are the substances, which cause______?
A. Contraction of the gallbladder
B. Increase concentration of bile
C. Increase secretion of bile
D. Favours acidification of bile
Small intestinal peristalsis is controlled by _______?
A. Myentric plexus
B. Meissners plexus
C. Vagus nerve
D. Parasympathetic
Maximum secretory glands in stomach are______?
A. Fundic glands
B. Pyloric glands
C. Gastric glands
D. Brunner’s glands
Vagal stimulation following intake of food does not affect secretion of______?
A. Stomach
B. Pancrease
C. Parotid
D. Gall bladder
Pepsinogen is activated by _______ ?
A. Enterokinase
B. Low pH
C. Trypsin
D. Chymotrypsin
Pharyngeal phase of deglutition_____?
A. Is a reflex mechanism
B. Vocal cords are closed
C. Is a voluntary mechanism
D. A and B
Production of bile takes place in______?
A. The gall bladder
B. Kupffer cells
C. Hepatic duct
D. Hepatocytes
The most important function of hydrochloric acid in the stomach is_____?
A. Destruction of bacteria
B. Neutralization of chyme
C. Activation of pepsinogen
D. Stimulation of pancreatic secretion
Histamine stimulate the secretion of_______?
A. Gastrin by stomach
B. Pancreatic enzymes
C. HCL by stomach
D. Amylase by salivary gland
Bilirubin is conjugated with which of the following ?
A. Glycine
B. Glutamine
C. Acetyl CoA
D. Glucuronic acid
Bile color is due to______?
A. Creatinine
B. Bilirubin
C. Globulin
D. 5 mercaptan purine
Bile salt repeats its cycle in______?
A. 4 times a day
B. 2 times in between meals
C. 8 times a day
D. 10 times a day in fasting
Stomach accommodates the meal by______?
A. Deceptive relaxation
B. Receptive relaxation
C. Reactive relaxation
D. None of the above
All the following causes the secretion of gastric juice during cephalic phase EXCEPT_____?
A. Food in the mouth
B. Sight of food
C. Food in the stomach
D. Thought of food
Within which parts of a gastric gland are chief cells located_____?
A. Fundus
B. Isthmus
C. Neck
D. Gastric pit
Gastro – intestinal hormone in the following is______?
A. Pepsin
B. Ptyalin
C. Cholecystokinin
D. Trypsin
Cephalic phase of gastric secretion can be demonstrated by the following experiment____?
A. Heidenhan’s pouch
B. Condition reflex
C. Pavlov’s pouch
D. None of the above
Fats absorbed with the help of bile salts are_____?
A. Free fatty acid
B. Glycerol
C. Higher fattery acids, diglycerides and monoglycereides
D. All of the above
Urine urobilinogen is absent in______?
A. Obstructive jaundice
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Hemolytic jaundice
D. All of the above
Pancreatic juice rich in water and electrolytes but poor in enzymes is secreted in response to ______?
A. Pancreatozymine
B. Cholecystokinin
C. Secretin
D. Proteins
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Maximum absorption of bile occurs at_____?
A. Jejunum
B. Duodenum
C. Ileum
D. Colon
Gastric secretion is stimulated by all the following except______?
A. Secretin
B. Gastric distension
C. Gastrin
D. Vagal stimulus
Secretin does not cause _______?
A. Bicarbonate secretion
B. Augments the action of CCK
C. Contraction of pyloric sphincter
D. Gastric secretion increase
The only sugar normally absorbed in the intestine against a concentration gradient is_______?
A. Xylose
B. Mannose
C. Glucose
D. Galactose
Parietal cells of gastric mucosa secrete _____ ?
A. HCl
B. Gastrin
C. Mucin
D. All of the above
The duodenum secretes a hormone which has following effects except_______?
A. Causes copious pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate and poor in enzymes
B. Increases gastric motility
C. Causes gall bladder to contract and sphincter of oddi to relax
D. Leads to meager flow of pancreatic juice rich in enzymes
Gastrin is produced by ______?
A. Pancreas
B. Gastric antral cells
C. Pituitary
D. All
All are actions of CCK except_______?
A. Relax lower esophageal sphincter
B. Increased pancreatic secretion
C. Increased gastric secretion
D. Causes GB contraction
Best stimuli for secretion is_____?
A. Protein
B. Acid
C. Fat
D. Bile
Nutrients are mainly absorbed in______?
A. Small intestine
B. Large intestine
C. Liver
D. Stomach
Pancreas produce_____?
A. Pepsinogen
B. Chymotrypsinogen
C. Hydrochloric acid
D. All of the above
Which of the following body secretions is maximum______?
A. Salivary
B. Gastric
C. Sweat
D. Lacrimal
Bile acids are derived from______?
A. Bile salts
B. Bile pigments
C. A & B
D. Cholesterol
In jaundice, there is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia which is most likely due to _____?
A. Hepatitis
B. Cirrhosis
C. Obstruction of bile canaliculi
D. Increased break down of red cells
Hypothyroidism should be treated with daily administration of which of the following thyroid hormone preparations ?
A. Thyroid extract
B. Thyroglobulin
C. Thyroxine (T4)
D. Triiodothyronine (T3)
Hypercalcemia associated with malignancy is most often mediated by ____?
A. Parathyroid hormone ( PTH)
B. Parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP)
C. Interleukin – 6 ( IL- 6)
D. Calcitonin
Insulin facilitates glucose uptake in____?
A. Kidney tubules
B. Red blood cells
C. Brain
D. Skeletal muscle
Not a glycoprotein________?
A. FSH
B. LH
C. TSH
D. GH
Cortisol______?
A. Secretion increases following injury
B. Favours protein synthesis
C. Enhances antigen – antibody reactions
D. Tends to lower blood pressure
All are seen in Cushing ‘s syndrome except______?
A. Truncal obesity
B. Hypertension
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Poor wound healing
Which is false regarding insulin_____?
A. Secreted by beta cells
B. Glycopeptide
C. Causes lipogenesis
D. Promotes glycogenesis
Human chorionic gonadotrophin hormone (HCG)______?
A. Acts on the uterus to maintain integrity of endometrium in early pregnancy
B. Production is greatest in the last three months of pregnancy
C. Can be identified in the urine of pregnant women by immunological technique
D. Is a steroid hormone
Regarding myxedema the following are true except______?
A. Swollen, oedematous look of the face
B. Impotency, amenorrhea
C. B.M.R increased by 30 -45%
D. Dullness, loss of memory
The catecholamines secreted by adrenal medulla______?
A. Increases the blood glucose level by favoring glycogenolysis in blood and muscle cells
B. Decrease the level of free fatty acids and ketone bodies
C. Increase the splanchnic blood flow
D. Are under the control of parasy
In thyrotoxicosis , there is_____?
A. Decrease in calcium excretion
B. Increase in serum proteins which bind throxine
C. Potentiation of catecholamine action
D. Increase in calcium excretion
Progesterone production in the ovary is primarily by______?
A. Stroma
B. Corpora albicans
C. Corpora lutea
D. Mature follicles
All the following hormones are secreted by adrenal cortex except_______?
A. Estriol
B. Cortisol
C. Corticosterone
D. Aldosterone
Contraceptive action of combined pill is mainly due to______?
A. Decrease in tubal motility
B. Prevents the fertilization
C. Prevents the implantation of fertilized egg
D. Inhibits ovulation
Epinephrine is most closely related in structure to ________?
A. Niacin
B. Tyrosine
C. Methionine
D. Glycerol
Steroid hormones are believed to enter target cells via______?
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Carrier – mediated endocytosis
C. Cholesterol lined pores in the plasma membrane
D. Simple diffusion
Which of the following statements about the action of the somatomedin is true ?
A. They inhibit protein synthesis
B. They antagonize the effect of insulin
C. They promote growth of bone and cartilage
D. They mediated the local effects of Somatostatin
Hormone released during increased stress is_____?
A. Cortisol
B. Thyroxine
C. Growth hormone
D. Somatostatin
Features of hypothyroidism does not include______?
A. Obseity
B. Hypertension
C. High TSH levels
D. Increased risk of infections
The primary site of action of antidiuretic hormone is on the_______?
A. Distal tubules and collecting ducts in the kidney
B. Afferent arterioles of the glomeruli
C. Thirst center in the hypothalamus
D. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus
The hormone , which stimulates uterus contraction and lets down milk, is______?
A. Progesterone
B. Prolactin
C. Prostaglandin
D. Oxytocin
Which hormone does not have corresponding release hormone produced in pituitary ?
A. TSH
B. Prolactin
C. ACTH
D. FSH
Thyroxine causes all the following except_______?
A. Decreased cell metabolism
B. Increased oxygen consumption
C. Increased pulmonary ventilation
D. Increased basal metabolism
Which of the following hormones increase the sensitivity of heart to epinephrine______?
A. Parathyroid
B. Insulin
C. Thyroid
D. Glucagon
Which of the following is called hunger hormone______?
A. Epinephrine
B. Glucagon
C. Pituitary
D. Thyroxine
Posterior pituitary insufficiency leads to_______?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Dwarfism
D. Cretinism
The blood glucose level in diabetes mellitus is decreased by removal of the_______?
A. Thyroid
B. Parathyroids
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Posterior pituitary
Adrenaline used for controlling of bleeding during surgery may result in______?
A. Syncope
B. Cardiac arrhythmias
C. Drastic fall in blood pressure
D. Precipitation of allergic reaction
The primary effect of calcitonin is_____?
A. Bone deposition
B. Bone resorption
C. Increases intestinal absorption of calcium
D. Decreases intestinal absorption of calcium
The decreased phosphate level seen in hyper parathyroidism is due to _____?
A. Decreased intestinal phosphate absorption
B. Increased calcium excretion
C. Decreased renal phosphate absorption
D. Increased loss of phosphate in urine
The hormone whose deficiency causes diabetes insipidus is released from which nucleus of pituitary ______?
A. Supraoptic
B. Pre optic
C. Suprachiasmatic
D. Paraventricular
Aldosterone production is controlled by _______?
A. Anterior pituitary gland
B. Posterior pituitary gland
C. Hypothalamus
D. Adrenal gland
Hormones, which stimulate spermatogenesis, are_______?
A. Insulin and glucagon
B. Thyroxine and parathormone
C. A.D.H. and Oxytocin
D. Testosterone and F.S. H
Which of the following results due to excessive parathormone secretion______?
A. Increased excretion of phosphates
B. Increased serum calcium
C. Decrease excretion of calcium
D. Increase excretion of calcium
Bone metabolism is controlled by ______?
A. Vit – D & Calcium
B. Parathormone
C. Calcitonin
D. All of the above
Changes in biological activity occurring daily are referred as ______ rhythm?
A. Circadian
B. Circa triginatan
C. Circa sestin
D. Circannual
Iodine is primarily important in the biochemical synthesis of______?
A. ACTH
B. Thyroxine
C. Adrenaline
D. Calcitonin
Trousseau’s sign and chovstek’s sings are positive in_______?
A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hypoparathyroidism
D. Hyperthyroidism
Vasopressin is synthesized in the_______?
A. Anterior pituitary
B. Hypothalamus
C. Juxtaglomerular apparatus
D. Vasomotor center
Aldosterone_______?
A. Increases reabsorption of sodium
B. Increases exceretion of potassium
C. Increases retention of sodium
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
A phaeochromocytoma is a tumour of the______?
A. Adrenal cortex
B. Parathyroids
C. Pituitary
D. None of the above
Which of the following is associated with a low concentration of ionized calcium in the serum ?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Osteogenesis imperfecta
C. Paget’s disease of the bone
D. Tetany
Which of the following hormones is released from the posterior pituitary ?
A. ACTH
B. Antidiuretic hormone
C. Growth hormone
D. Luetinizing hormone
All of the following are adverse effects of long- term corticosteroids EXCEPT______?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Psychosis
C. Peptic ulcers
D. Osteoporosis
Which amongst the following is the gold standard for demonstrating hcG____?
A. Radio immune assay
B. Latex agglutination
C. Immunofluorescence
D. ELISA
Which one of the following is a precursor of both gonadal and adrenocortical hormones_______?
A. Progesterone
B. Cortisol
C. Testosterone
D. Corticosterone
Inhibit b hormone has effect on______?
A. Sertoli cells
B. FSH
C. Seminiferous tubules
D. Spermatogenesis
Glucose tolerance test is usually done to assess______?
A. Acute Pancreatitis
B. Carcinoma of Head of Pancreas
C. Acinar Function of the Pancreas
D. Endocrine Dysfunction of Pancreas
Which of the following hormones act via cAMP ?
A. Insulin
B. Parathormone
C. Vasopressin
D. Adrenalin
Insulin increases the activity of_____?
A. HMG. CoA reductase
B. HMG- CoA lyase
C. HMG- CoA synthase
D. Thiolase
Hyperthyroidism can be caused by______?
A. Clonidine
B. Amiodarone
C. Hydralazine
D. Penicillamine
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More Physiology MCQs for M-Cadet
Hormones FSH & LH of anterior pituitary gland acts on_______?
A. Testis but not ovaries
B. Ovaries but not testis
C. Both Testis and ovaries
D. Adrenal cortex
Removal of parathyroid gland produces the following changes EXCEPT______?
A. Decline plasma calcium level
B. Decrease in plasma phosphate level
C. Neuromuscular hyperexcitability
D. hypo calcemic tetany
Fertilized ovum usually gets attached to the uterus wall in _____?
A. 14 days
B. 28 days
C. 8 weeks
D. 1 week
Aldosterone secretion is increased when there is a fall in______?
A. Plasma K+
B. Plasma Na+
C. pH of the plasma
D. Angiotensin II level
Hormone responsible for milk ejection_____?
A. Oxytocin
B. Estrogen
C. Progesterone
D. Prolactin
The most significant immediate result of lowered serum calcium is_____?
A. Weakened heart action
B. Decalcification of bones
C. Decalcification of teeth
D. Hyperirritability of nerves and muscles
Tetany is characterized by ________?
A. Hypotonicity of muscles
B. Hypertonicity of muscles
C. Increased serum calcium concentration
D. None of the above
The effect which is seen due to decrease in serum calcium concentration is_____?
A. Relaxation of muscle
B. Excitability of the muscle
C. Increase the renal absorption
D. Depression of Nervous system
Paneth cells secrete which of the following ?
A. Antibacterial substance
B. Lipase
C. Maltase
D. Secretin
Following are the features of cretinism, except______?
A. Pot- belly
B. Idiotic look
C. Normal intelligence
D. Stunted growth
All of the following hormones have cell surface receptors except______?
A. Adrenalin
B. Growth Hormone
C. Insulin
D. Thyroxine
Osteoclasts are inhibited / modified and regulated by________?
A. Parathyroid hormone
B. Calcitonin
C. 1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferols
D. Tumor necrosis factor
Blood coagulation is impaired in______?
A. Tetany
B. Hyperparathyrodism
C. Rickets
D. None
A child is below the third percentile for height. Growth velocity is normal, but chronologic age is more than skeletal age. The most likely diagnosis is______?
A. Constitutional delay in growth
B. Genetic short stature
C. Primordial dwarfism
D. Hypopituitarism
Noradrenaline is differentiated from adrenaline by increasing______?
A. Heart rate
B. Cardiac output
C. Peripheral resistance
D. All of the above
Following are local hormones except_____?
A. Insulin
B. Heparin
C. Bradykinin
D. Acetylcholine
Oxytocin causes all accept_______?
A. Lactogenesis
B. Milk ejection
C. Contraction of uterine muscle
D. Myoepithelial cell contraction
Cortisol levels are maximum during_____?
A. Sleep
B. Early morning
C. Evening
D. Have no change
IN the adrenal gland, androgens are produced by the cells in the______?
A. Zona glomerulosa
B. Zona reticularis
C. Zona fasciculata
D. Medulla
FSH is secreted by_______?
A. Chromophobes
B. Basophils
C. Acidophiles
D. Theca intern cells
Reverse T3 is______?
A. Synthetic derivative
B. Isomerisation product of T3 and active
C. Isomerisation product of T3 and inactive
D. Reverse of T3
Menopausal hormonal relations are______?
A. Lh/FSH increase
B. Gonadotropins increase , estrogens decrease
C. Estrogens and gonadotropins decrease
D. Both increase
Not true about T3 and T4 is______?
A. T3 more potent than T4
B. T4 binds to prealbumin
C. Absorption of T4 is more than T3
D. Concentration of T4 is more than T3
Ovulation is associated with sudden rise in______?
A. Prolactin
B. Testosterone
C. L.H
D. Oxytocin
There absorption of sodium chloride in kidneys is controlled by the hormones_______?
A. Adrenaline
B. Aldosterone
C. A.D.H. and vasopressin
D. All of the above
The following hormones increase the blood glucose level except______?
A. Thyroxine
B. Parathormone
C. Growth Hormone
D. Epinephrine
Glucocorticoids decrease inflammatory reaction by reducing______?
A. Activity of histamine
B. Release of histamine
C. Fibroblastic activity
D. Neutrophils
The supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus is believed to control secretion of which of the following hormones ?
A. Antidiuretic hormone
B. Oxytocin
C. Growth hormone
D. Adreno corticotrophic hormone
Acromegaly is a disorder of_______?
A. Excess growth hormone secreting
B. Excess thyroxine secretion
C. Excess ACTH secretion
D. Excess FSH secretion
All the following hormones bind to cell surface receptors of the target tissues EXCEPT______?
A. Thyroid stimulating hormone
B. Glucagon
C. Estrogen
D. Epinephrine
Which of these following is not an effect of insulin ?
A. Decreased gluconeogenesis
B. Increased glycogenolysis
C. Increased transport of glucose into cells
D. Induction of lipoprotein lipase
The hormone having the maximum effect on granulation wound healing is____?
A. Thyroxine
B. Cortisone
C. Parathormone
D. Epinephrine
Endocrine glands that are not influenced by the pituitary gland include the______?
A. Thyroid gland, testes , and adrenal medulla
B. Adrenal medulla, parathyroids, and the islets of langerhans
C. Adrenal cortex, parathyroids and ovaries
D. Pancreas, adrenal medulla and thyroid gland
Glucagon is secreted by ____?
A. Alpha cells of pancreas
B. Beta cells of pancreas
C. Gamma cells of pancreas
D. None of the above
The receptors for parathyroid hormone are present in______?
A. Osteoblasts
B. Osteoclasts
C. Periosteum
D. Cartilage
Negative BMR is observed with_____?
A. Pituitary disturbance
B. Thyroid disturbance
C. Parathyroid
D. All of the above
Glucocorticoids have all the following actions except______?
A. Increase in blood glucose level
B. Increase in protein catabolism
C. Anti – insulin action in peripheral tissues
D. Decrease in glucose uptake by the heart
Excess of cortisol causes_______?
A. Conn’s syndrome
B. Cushing ‘s syndrome
C. Acromegaly
D. Diabetes insipidus
A diet deficient in calcium will result in______?
A. Stimulation of the thyroid gland
B. Increased ability to cross – link fibrin
C. Production of Calcitonin and a low blood calcium level
D. Production of parathyroid hormone and bone resorption
Adrenal gland has two parts; cortex and medulla. Which of the following is correct_______?
A. Cortex is under the control of ACTH
B. Both cortex and medulla are under the control of autonomic nervous system
C. Cortex is exocrine and medulla is endocrine
D. All of the above
Enzymes, which play an important role in calcification are_______?
A. Enolase and Calcitonin
B. Alkaline phosphatase and catalase
C. Alkaline phosphatase and pyrophophatase
D. Pyrophosphatase and carbonic anhydrase
Endocrine disorder is the primary cause of_______?
A. Acromegaly
B. Albright’s syndrome
C. Paget’s disease
D. Fibrous dysplasia
Low calcium level will cause_______?
A. Hyper excitability of wrist muscle
B. Weak heart action
C. Tetanus
D. All of the above
Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones is primarily under inhibitory control of hypothalamus ?
A. TSH
B. GRH
C. Somatostatin
D. Prolactin
Which of the following hormones exerts the least effect on calcium metabolism of bone tissue ?
A. Anderogen
B. Estrogen
C. Nor epinephrine
D. Thyroid hormone
Which of the following hormones does not affect growth ?
A. Oxytocin
B. Somatotropins
C. Thyroid hormone
D. Estrogen
Calcitonin is released by _______?
A. Parafollicular cells of thyroid
B. Chief cells of thyroid
C. Granular cells of adrenal gland
D. Stratum fasciculata of adrenal gland
Function of ADH is________?
A. Water reabsorption
B. Water excretion
C. Na+ absorption
D. K+ secretion
Which hormone , together with the catecholamines enhances the tone of vascular smooth muscle and assists in elevating blood pressure ?
A. Parathyroid hormone
B. Glucagon
C. Thyroxine
D. Cortisol
A child with stunted growth with a stuffed – belly, and short stature with mental retardation is suffering from the deficiency of which of the following_______?
A. Thyroxine
B. Growth hormone
C. Rickets
D. Parathyroid
Deficiency of cortisol causes______?
A. Cushing syndrome
B. Graves’ disease
C. Addison disease
D. Acromegaly
Due fear which of the following hormones increases rapidly _______?
A. Growth hormones
B. Epinephrine
C. Corticosteroid
D. Thyroid hormone
Which hormone is released when serum calcium decreases ?
A. Parathormone
B. Calcitonin
C. Thyroxine
D. Adrenaline
In children, hypothyroidism causes______?
A. Acromegaly
B. Cretinism
C. Gigantism
D. Myxodedema
In conn’s disease, there is an excess of_______?
A. Adrenaline
B. Aldosterone
C. Cortisol
D. Noradrenaline
The oxygen tension of the mixed venous blood is_______?
A. 25 mm Hg
B. 40 mm Hg
C. 55 mm Hg
D. 70 mm Hg
In Haldane effect CO2 dissociation curve is shifted to_____?
A. Left
B. Right
C. Does not shift
D. None of the above
The most common form of hypoxia is_______?
A. Hypoxic
B. Stagnant
C. Anemic
D. Histotoxic
Which of the following does not stimulate alveolar hyperventilation ?
A. Hypoxia
B. Hypercapnia
C. Acidosis
D. Stretching of airways
Arterial PO₂ is reduced in______?
A. Anemia
B. KCN poisoning
C. Pulmonary hypoventilation
D. CO poisoning
In which of the following diseases would you expect to find an increase in thickness of the respiratory membrane ?
A. Emphysema
B. Asthma
C. Pulmonary artery thrombosis
D. Skeletal abnormalities of the chest
Muscle of expiration______?
A. Diaphragm
B. Internal intercostals
C. External intercostals
D. Rcti Abdominis
Oxygen dissociation cure is shifted to the right in all except______?
A. Fall in pH
B. Rise in temperature
C. Increase of 2, 3 3 DPG
D. HbF
The alveolar ventilation in an individual with tidal volume: 600 ml, dead space 150 ml and respiratory rate of 15/ minute is_______?
A. 2.5 lit/Min
B. 4.0 lit /Min
C. 6.75 Lit/Min
D. 9 Lit/Min
The intrapleural pressure at the end of deep inspiration is ______?
A. – 4 mm Hg
B. +4 mm Hg
C. -18 mm Hg
D. + mm Hg
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More Physiology MCQs for Medical, Nursing Jobs & Short Service Commission
Hypoxia is characterized by ______?
A. Low arterial PO₂
B. Intense chemoreceptor response
C. Favorable response to 100% oxygen
D. All of the above
Alveolar O₂ tension is_______?
A. Increased by hyperventilation
B. Decreased by hyperventilation
C. Similar to venous O₂ tension
D. Not affected by respiratory depression
Surfactant is secreted by______?
A. Pnemocyte I
B. Pnemocyte II
C. Goblet cells
D. Pulmonary vessels
Vital capacity is decreased, timed vital capacity (FEV 1.0 %) is normal in_______?
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Scoliosis
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Acute bronchitis
The type of hypoxia present in high attitude is_____?
A. Anemic Hypoxia
B. Hypoxic Hypoxia
C. Stagnant Hypoxia
D. Histotoxic Hypoxia
The volume of gas in the lungs at the end of normal expiration is_____?
A. Expiratory reserve volume
B. Functional residual capacity
C. Residual volume
D. Inspiratory reserve volume
A decrease in the arterial PO₂ is seen in______?
A. Decrease in hemoglobin concentration of arterial blood
B. Paralysis of inspiratory muscles
C. Sluggish blood flow
D. High altitudes
Kussmamul’s respiration occurs in response to______?
A. Decrease in pH of blood
B. Increase in pH of blood
C. Obstructive pulmonary disease
D. Carbon monoxide poisoning
Energy expenditure during normal breathing______?
A. 25% – 50% of total energy spent
B. 50% -75% of total energy spent
C. 15% – 20% of total energy spent
D. 2% – 3% of total energy spent
Normal intrapleural pressure during the start of inspiration is _____ mm of Hg?
A. -2
B. -5
C. 0
D. -7
In cases of hypercapnia there is_______?
A. Increased pH of blood
B. Decreased pH of blood
C. Remains same
D. Increased oxygen concentration in blood
Carbon monoxide poisoning causes_______?
A. Hypoxic hypoxia
B. Oxygen dissociation curve shifts to left
C. Cyanosis
D. Diffusion capacity of lungs decreases
An important non- respiratory function of lungs is_______?
A. Anion balance
B. Sodium balance
C. Potassium balance
D. Ca+2 balance
What is true about pneumothorax ?
A. Total chest wall diameter is increased
B. Interpleural pressure becomes more negative
C. The concentration of surfactant is reduced in alveoli
D. Increased lung compliance
Inability of exchange of oxygen through lung tissue if known as______?
A. Anoxic anoxia
B. Anoxia
C. Histotoxic hypoxia
D. Ischemic hypoxia
The approximate amount of air left in the lungs after maximal forced expiration in a normal woman_________?
A. 0.5 L
B. 2.0 L
C. 1.1 L
D. 1.8 L
Carotid body function in an organ work as______?
A. Differential pressure of oxygen in arterial blood
B. Differential pressure of oxygen in venous blood
C. Differential pressure of oxygen in in tissue fluids
D. Differential pressure of oxygen in in hemoglobin synthesis
The transport of CO is diffusion limited because________?
A. Bind avidly with Hb
B. Partial pressure of CO is less
C. CO is less absorbed in water
D. Alveolar membrane is less permeable
Oxygen as an emergency drug is contraindicated in_______?
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Asthma
C. Hyperventilation
D. COPD
The quantity of water lost in expired air each 24 hrs is about______?
A. 200 ML
B. 400 ML
C. 600 ML
D. 800 ML
Which of the following adaptations will be apt to increase the work capacity at high altitude________?
A. Increased workload, decreasing duration of exercise
B. Increased workload, increasing duration of exercise
C. Decreasing workload, increasing duration of exercise
D. Decreasing workload, decreasing duration of exercise
Bronchial circulation is associated with________?
A. Air conditioning
B. Drug absorption
C. Gaseous exchange
D. Reserve volume
The work of breathing_______?
A. is inversely related to lung compliance
B. remains constant during exercise
C. is not affected by respiratory
D. decreased in lying posture
Shift of the oxygen dissociation curve to right is caused by the following factors EXCEPT____?
A. Increased 2,3 BPG
B. Increased temperature
C. Increased concentration of carbon – di – oxide
D. Increased concentration of oxygen
At high altitudes the following changes takes place except_______?
A. Increase in respiratory rate
B. Increases in depth of respiration
C. Increase in oxygen carrying capacity of blood
D. Increase in partial pressure of CO₂
Which of the following statements about pulmonary surfactant is false ?
A. It is secreted by Type II pneumocytes
B. It contains lecithin and sphingomyelin
C. It increases surface tension
D. It prevents collapse of smaller alveoli
Increase in partial pressure of CO2 leading to release of oxygen to the tissues is______?
A. Haldane effect
B. Bohr effect
C. Breur effect
D. Hamburger effect
Ventilation perfusion ratio is maximum in_____?
A. Base of lung
B. Apex of lung
C. Posterior lobe of lung
D. Middle lobe of lung
Vital capacity is a measure of________?
A. Tidal volume
B. Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory volume
C. Tidal volume plus inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume
D. Expiratory reserve volume plus reserve volume
Oxygen affinity decreases in_______?
A. Hypoxia
B. Hypothermia
C. HbF
D. Increased pH
Arterial O2 content is reduced in one of following _______?
A. Stagnant hypoxia
B. Anemic hypoxia
C. Histotoxic hypoxia
D. Hypoxic or arterial hypoxia
Oxygen affinity is increased by all except________?
A. Alkalosis
B. Hypoxia
C. Increased HbF
D. Hypothermia
Non- respiratory function of the lung is__________?
A. Dopamine metabolism
B. Adrenaline metabolism
C. Serotonin metabolism
D. PGE2 production
Smoking causes______?
A. Ciliary motility
B. Cellular hyperplasia
C. Mucous secretion
D. All of the above
Limitation of inspiration by vagal lung inflation signals is called the_______?
A. Autonomic reflex
B. Bainbridge reflex
C. Herring – Breur reflex
D. Dynamic stretch reflex
Cyanosis or bluish coloration of skin and mucus membrane depends upon________?
A. The relative proportion of reduced and oxygenated hemoglobin
B. The absolute amount of reduced hemoglobin
C. Thickness of the skin
D. Fragility of capillaries
During the initial part of inspiration, which of the following does not occur ?
A. Intrapulmonary pressure falls
B. Intra thoracic pressure rises
C. Intra-abdominal pressure rises
D. The partial pressure of O₂ in dead space rises
What effect does hyperventilation have on the oxygen binding affinity of hemoglobin ?
A. P50 and oxygen affinity decrease
B. P 50 and oxygen affinity increase
C. P 50 decreases and the oxygen affinity increases
D. P50 increase and the oxygen affinity decreases
The best stimulator of respiratory center is______?
A. Decrease in arterial carbon dioxide level
B. Increase in arterial carbon dioxide level
C. Increase in arterial oxygen level
D. None of the above
Oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the right by all of the following except______?
A. Rise in temperature
B. Rise in carbon dioxide tension
C. Rise in pH
D. Rise in H+ ion
Most effective method of assessing breathing is by measuring_____?
A. Tidal volume
B. Respiratory rate
C. Alveolar ventilation
D. FEV 1
The major sign of hypoventilations______?
A. Cyanosis
B. Dyspnea
C. Hypercapnia
D. Hypoxia
During inspiration when the diaphragm contracts, the intrapleural pressure becomes_______?
A. More negative
B. Less negative
C. Positive
D. Equal to the intra alveolar pressure
Tubuloglomerular feedback occurs in______?
A. ADH secretion in collecting duct
B. Constant solute load on distal tubule
C. Macula densa
D. Balance between ascending and descending loop of henle
Most of the sodium is reabsorbed in______?
A. PCT
B. DCT
C. Loop of henle
D. Vasa recta
The renal blood flow in (in ml/mt) is_____?
A. 250
B. 800
C. 1260
D. 1500
Ammonia in the kidney tubules is excreted in exchange for_______?
A. HCO₃-
B. Na+
C. CL-
D. PO4-2
Inulin clearance closely resembles____?
A. G.F.R
B. Renal plasma flow
C. Creatinine clearance
D. P.A.H. clearance
Which one of the following is not responsible for concentration of urine in the kidneys______?
A. Aldosterone
B. Angiotensin II
C. Vasopressin
D. Epinephrine
Two substances that can probably be used to determine filtration fraction are_____?
A. Inulin and mannitol
B. Urea and diodrast
C. PAH and Phenol red
D. Inulin and PAH
In renal glycosuria, the renal threshold for glucose is_____?
A. Low
B. High
C. Same
D. Greatly increased
Proximal renal tubule is most permeable to _______?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Bicarbonate
D. Ammonia
Major portion of glomerular filtrate is absorbed in______?
A. Loop of Henle
B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Collecting duct
D. Proximal segment
GFR is increased when______?
A. Plasma oncotic pressure is increased
B. Glomerular hydrostatic pressure is decreased
C. Tubular hydrostatic pressure is increased
D. Increased renal blood flow
Each kidney contains about ______ nephrons ?
A. One million
B. Two million
C. Four million
D. ½ million
The normal adult value of urine output_________?
A. 1.5 l/day
B. 3 l/day
C. 0.5 l/day
D. 2 l/day
Amount of glucose absorbed in proximal convoluted tubule_______?
A. 100%
B. 0%
C. 60%
D. 50%
Formation of a small volume of concentrated urine in dehydration is associated with_______?
A. More reabsorption in the PCT
B. More concentration in loop of Henle
C. More reabsorption of DCT and collecting ducts
D. All of these
The glomerular filtration rate of the human kidney may be determined by measuring the plasma clearance of______?
A. PAH
B. Urea
C. Inulin
D. Glucose
The kidney secrete all of the following hormones except______?
A. Renin
B. Erythropoietin
C. Vasopressin
D. 1,2,5 Dihydroxy cholecalciferol
Carbonic anhydrase in the kidney tubular cells is known to be associated with_____?
A. Urea
B. Chloride
C. Bicarbonate ion
D. Carbohydrate
In osmotic diuresis there is______?
A. Increase in renal blood flow
B. Increase in glomerular filtration rate
C. Increase in NaCl concentration in urine
D. Decrease in reabsorption of Na Cl
Tubular maximum for glucose is______?
A. 180 mg/dl
B. 325 mg/dl
C. 375 mg/dl
D. 375 mg/dl
The reabsorption of sodium chloride is increased in proximal convoluted tubules by hormones secreted from______?
A. Anterior pituitary
B. Posterior pituitary
C. Adrenal cortex
D. Adrenal medulla
The part of nephron” least permeable to water” is_______?
A. Proximal tubule
B. Descending limb of loop of Henle
C. Ascending limb of loop of Henle
D. Collecting tubule
In which segment of the nephron does tubular fluid has the highest osmolarity ?
A. Henle’s loop
B. Distal tubule
C. Proximal tubule
D. Collecting duct
Site of ADH action is_______?
A. Proximal tubule
B. Loop of Henle
C. Vasa recta
D. Collecting tubule
Diuresis is caused by_____?
A. Mannitol
B. Glycerol
C. Urea
D. All of the above
Macula dense in kidney is located in relation to_______?
A. PCT
B. DCT
C. Afferent arteriole
D. Efferent arteriole
Which of the following is important in renal excretion of hydrogen ion ?
A. Combining H+ with Cl- to form Hcl
B. Combining H+ and HCO₃- via enzyme carbonic anhydrase
C. Trapping H+ by acetate
D. Trapping H+ by NH₃+
The renal clearance of ________?
A. Creatinine indicates glomerular filtration rate
B. Inulin is lower than that of urea
C. Chloride increases after in injection of aldosterone
D. PAH continues to rise as the plasma concentration of PAH increases
Past Physiology Questions with Answers
Find more past MCQs of Physiology here below:
True about nephron is_______?
A. Na is absorbed actively in descending loop of Henle
B. 60 to 70% of GFR is absorbed in proximal tubule
C. Absorption of water occurs in ascending loop of Henle
D. The filtrate reaching distal convoluted tubule is hypertonic with respect to surroundings
The hyperosmolarity of the renal medulla is due to increased content of_______?
A. K+
B. Na+
C. Glucose
D. NH4+
Renin secretion is stimulated by all except______?
A. Cardiac failure
B. Low Na+ in proximal tubule
C. Sympathetic stimulation
D. High Na+ in proximal tubule
What is the glomerular filtration rate ?
A. 100 ml/min
B. 125 ml/min
C. 150 ml/min
D. 175 ml/min
To measure renal plasma clearance compound should be_______?
A. <70,000 Mol.wt
B. Bound to plasma protein
C. Secreted by the tubules
D. Completely filtered by glomerulus
The renal threshold for glucose is______?
A. 180 mg / dl
B. 100 mg/dl
C. 120 mg/dl
D. 80 mg/dl
Maximum amount of glucose absorption occurs at______?
A. PCT
B. DCT
C. Loop of henle
D. None
Functional unit of kidney is_______?
A. Nephron
B. Glomerulus
C. Collecting ducts
D. Loop of Henle
Brush border is seen in______?
A. Bowman’s capsule
B. Proximal convoluted tubule
C. Distal convoluted tubule
D. Loop of Henle
In the human kidney, a renal papilla project directly into the______?
A. Ureter
B. Major calyx
C. Minor calyx
D. Renal pyramid
Renin is released from the kidney in all except_____?
A. Sympathetic stimulation
B. Decrease in the concentration of sodium ions in the proximal tubules
C. Decrease in the concentration of sodium ions in the distal tubules
D. Fall in the BP
Test for estimating kidney function is_______?
A. Serum creatinine
B. Serum phosphatase
C. Inulin test
D. Insulin test
A decrease in the urine output is called_____?
A. Dysuria
B. Nocturia
C. Oliguria
D. Plyuria
The end plate potential is characterized by______?
A. Propagation
B. All or none law
C. Depolarization
D. Hyper polarization
Potassium is maximum in_____?
A. Cell
B. Plasma
C. Interstitium
D. Bone
In excitable cells, repolarization is closely associated with, one of the following events________?
A. Na effux
B. Na influx
C. K efflux
D. K influx
All are features of skeletal muscle except______?
A. Cylindrical
B. Transverse striation
C. Centrally placed nuclei
D. Multiple nuclei
Rigor mortis results after death is due to________?
A. Failure of acetylcholine to diffuse
B. Failure of ATP supply
C. Failure of break down of calcium bridges
D. None of the above
The skeletal muscle action potential______?
A. Is not essential for contraction to occur
B. Has a prolonged plateau phase?
C. Spreads in ward to all parts of the muscle via the t- tubule system
D. Begins with an, in ward movement of K+ ins
Electromyography is used for_____?
A. To study muscle activity
B. Determine class II malocclusion
C. Determine the centric relation
D. Determine the centric occlusion
Skeletal muscles_______?
A. Contracts when calcium is taken up by sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. Contracts when actin and myosin filaments shorten
C. Contraction is initiated by calcium binding to troponin
D. Contraction is initiated by calcium binding to tropomyosin
The contractile element in a skeletal muscle is present in________?
A. Sarcolemma
B. Sarcoplasm
C. Myofibril
D. Endomysium
Which is caused by acetylcholine through nicotinic receptors_______?
A. Contraction of skeletal muscle
B. Decrease of heart rate
C. Secretion of saliva
D. Contraction of pupils
Which one of the following is a regulatory protein of the muscle ?
A. Troponin
B. Myosin
C. Actin
D. Protein- C
Skeletal muscles_______?
A. Contracts when calcium is taken up by sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. Contracts when actin and myosin filaments shorten
C. Contraction is initiated by calcium binding to troponin
D. Contraction is initiated by calcium binding to tropomyosin
Cardiac muscle contracts due to_____?
A. Extracellular Ca+2
B. Sarcoplasmic ca+2
C. Extracellular Na+
D. Intracellular Na+
Small packets of acetylcholine released randomly from the nerve cell membrane at rest Produces________?
A. Inhibitory post synaptic potential
B. Miniature end plate potential
C. Action potential
D. End plate potential
Upstroke of action potential would lead to_____?
A. Net current in an outward direction
B. Cell interior becomes more negative
C. Cell interior becomes less negative
D. None of the above
The main types of muscle cells are______?
A. Skeletal and cardiac
B. Smooth and cardiac
C. Smooth and skeletal
D. All of the above
Two major types of muscle fibres are found in humans_____?
A. white and brown
B. White and yellow
C. White and gray
D. White and red
The absolute refractory period of an action potential is due to _____?
A. Insufficient neurotransmitter
B. Depletion of intracellular Na+
C. Inactivation of Na+ k+ ATPase
D. Voltage inactivation of the Na+ channel
Increase in threshold level on applying subthreshold, slowly rising stimulus is known as _____?
A. Adaptation
B. Accommodation
C. Refractoriness
D. Electrotonus
The number of muscle fibers in a motor unit are least in_______?
A. Laryngeal muscles
B. Pharyngeal muscles
C. Muscles of middle ear
D. Extraocular muscles
Succinyl choline acts to block neuromuscular transmission by_______?
A. Inhibiting cholinesterase
B. Inhibiting the CNS
C. Depolarizing the motor end plate of skeletal muscle
D. Blocking the release of acetyl choline at the end plate
Non true regarding Na/K pump is______?
A. Pumps Na against a gradient
B. 5 Na+ exchanged for 2K+
C. Increase in intracellular Na
D. Hypocalcemia inhibits the pump
A motor unit is made up of_______?
A. A flexor muscle and an extensor muscle
B. A single skeletal muscle and all the motor peurons that supply it
C. A single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates
D. All the motor neurons in which response are observed after maximal stimulation of a single sensory nerve
The neuromuscular transmitter released at neuromuscular junction is________?
A. Dopamine
B. Epinephrine
C. Nor epinephrine
D. Acetylcholine
In myasthenia gravis_____?
A. there is lack of acetyl choline
B. Lack of acetyl choline receptors
C. There is isometric contraction
D. Muscles are rigid and tough
Tendon (or) ligament is attached to a bone through ______?
A. Tomes fibers
B. Interstitial fibers
C. Sharpey’s fibers
D. Haversian fibers
In an isotonic contraction of the muscle_______?
A. The muscle moves a load through a distance
B. The muscle is not able to move the load
C. The latent period of contraction is shorter than isometric contraction
D. The length of muscle is increased
The study of the electrical activity of the muscle is______?
A. EEG
B. EMG
C. Venn diagram
D. ECG
The following electrodes are used to detect the muscle activity without pain________?
A. Surface electrode
B. Round electrode
C. Hook electrode
D. Needle electrode
Contractile element in myofibril is____?
A. H band
B. Sarcoplasm
C. Sarcomere
D. A line
Calcium ions triggers muscle contraction by binding to _______?
A. Actin
B. Myosin
C. Troponin
D. Tropomyosin
Which of the following is not a marker of bone formation________?
A. Alkaline phosphatase
B. Osteocalcin
C. Procollagen marker
D. Hydroxy proline
Regulated bone growth through puberty occurs through_______?
A. Endophyseal plates
B. Ectophyeseal plates
C. Epiphyseal plates
D. Chondrophyseal plates
The acrosome reaction occurs, when the sperm______?
A. Enters the uterine cavity
B. Comes in contact with zone pellucida
C. Penetrates corona radiate
D. Penetrates cell membrane of oocyte
Decreased basal metabolic rate is seen in_____?
A. Obesity
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Feeding
D. Exercise
False about blood brain barrier is_______?
A. There are gaps between tight junctions at the active sites
B. There are no gaps between active sites
C. Less activity in the membrane
D. Fibronectin provides a barrier for diffusion
The processing of short-term memory to long term memory is done in_______?
A. Prefrontal cortex
B. Hippocampus
C. Neocortex
D. Amygdala
Valve of Hasner is present at__________?
A. Stensons duct
B. common bile duct
C. Naso lacrimal duct
D. maxillary Sinus
Regarding Golgi tendon organ true is ______?
A. Senses dynamic length of muscle
B. Involved in reciprocal innervation
C. a- motor neuron stimulation
D. Sense muscle tension
_________ is an example for rapidly acting neurotransmitter?
A. Somatostatin
B. Calcitonin
C. Substance P
D. Glycine
Primary cause of bleeding disorder in liver damage is due to______?
A. Decreased level of prothrombin
B. Lack of vitamin K
C. Platelet deficiency
D. Lack of vitamin B
Open faced nucleus in a cell signifies_____?
A. That the cell is resting
B. that the cell is active
C. nothing
D. that the cell is in transition phase
When a person lies down______?
A. There is immediate increase in venous return
B. Heart rate becomes stable at slightly more than normal
C. Cerebral blood flow increase & becomes stable at more than normal
D. Blood flow to the Apex of lung decrease
In a DNA molecule adenine always forms a linkage with_____?
A. Guanine
B. Cytosine
C. Thymine
D. Uracil
The oral and pharyngeal phases of swallowing take place very rapidly and last about____?
A. 3.5 seconds
B. 1-1.5 seconds
C. 6.0 seconds
D. 9.5 seconds
The major functional difference between DNA and RNA is___?
A. RNA contains ribose
B. DNA carries the information in all organizations
C. DNA is localized in nucleus
D. RNA does not contain thymine
Most important function of albumin in body is______?
A. Oncotic pressure
B. Drug transport
C. Toxic transport
D. Coagulation
In peripheral tissues which of the following contains substance P_____?
A. Plasma cell
B. Mast cell
C. Nerve terminal
D. Vascular endothelium
Which of the following events DO NOT occur in rods in response to light______?
A. Structural changes in rhodopsin
B. Activation of transducin
C. Decreased intracellular cGMP
D. Opening of Na+ channels
Gut associated lymphoid tissue ( GALT) is primarily located in____?
A. Lamina propria
B. Submucosa
C. Muscularis
D. Serosa
To check objective pain response, which is best used method__________?
A. Facial pain scale
B. Knee jerk reflex
C. H- Reflex
D. R III Reflex
T- lymphocytes play a primary role in_______?
A. Production of Antibodies
B. production of lymphokines and delayed hypersensitivity
C. Activation of complement system
D. Immediate Hypersensitivity
Which among the following is also called” peak less” insulin analog ?
A. Insulin lispro
B. Insulin glargine
C. Insulin aspart
D. Lente insulin
Meiotic division of male germ cells commence________?
A. During intra – uterine life
B. just before birth
C. by around 6 years after birth
D. by around 16 years
The percentage of body water is greater in________?
A. Male than in females
B. Children than in adult
C. Obese than in lean individuals
D. old than in young objects
During exercise_______?
A. Cerebral blood flow increases if there is increase in systolic blood pressure
B. Body temperature increases
C. Blood flow to muscle increases after 1½ minute
D. Lymphatic flow from muscle decrease
Plasma factor present in both serum & plasma is_______?
A. V
B. VII
C. II
D. Fibrinogen
In PHC, which anticoagulant is used to send the blood sample for blood glucose_____?
A. EDTA
B. Heparin
C. Potassium oxalate+ sodium fluoride
D. Potassium oxalate
Blood cells arise in bone marrow and are subject to______?
A. Irregular renewal
B. Regular renewal
C. Infrequent renewal
D. None of the above
Site of RBC formation in 20 years old healthy male is_______?
A. Flat bones
B. Long bones
C. Liver
D. Yolk sac
In human the Hb is_______?
A. HbH
B. HbA
C. HbM
D. HbS
Plasma cells are constituent of_______?
A. Nervous tissue
B. Muscular tissue
C. Epithelial tissue
D. Connective tissue
The tissue macrophages are derived from the______?
A. Neutrophil
B. Eosinophil
C. Monocyte
D. All of the above
In a blood sample antiserum A and antiserum B and Rh+ ve factor is added. No agglutination is seen. This is_______?
A. O group and Rh+ ve
B. O group and Rh- ve
C. AB group and Rh+ ve
D. AB group and Rh – ve
AB group has following agglutinins________?
A. Anti – A & Anti – B
B. Neither anti A nor anti – B
C. Anti – A
D. Anti – B
Citrate is a useful anticoagulant because of its ability to______?
A. Buffer basic groups of coagulation factors
B. Bind factor XII
C. Bind vitamin K
D. Chelate calcium
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Past Question of Physiology with Answers
Find more past questions of Physiology with answers are here below:
ESR depends on_________?
A. Viscidity
B. Fibrinogen
C. Rouleaux
D. All of the above
The normal brown red color of feces results from the presence of________?
A. Heme
B. Stercobilin
C. Biliverdin
D. Bilirubin diglucuronide
Which of the following is not a cause of secondary polycythemia ?
A.High Altitude
B. Myeloproliferative changes
C. Pheochromocytoma
D. Cerebellar hemangioblastoma
Which of the following clotting factor is involved only in extrinsic pathway ?
A. IX
B. X
C. II
D. VII
Plasma colloid osmotic pressure is due to_______?
A. Albumin
B. Globulin
C. Fibrinogen
D. Collagen
Decreased MCHC is found in_____?
A. Microcytic hypochromic anemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Sideroblastic anemia
D. Vit B12 deficiency
True statement regarding hematopoiesis includes____?
A. Spleen plays a major role in adults (in lymphopoiesis )
B. Committed stem cells differentiates into only one cell type
C. RES plays a role
D. None
A reliable screening test for platelet function is________?
A. CT
B. PT
C. Thrombin
D. Clot retraction time
CO2 is transported in plasma as________?
A. Bicarbonate
B. Carbomino compounds
C. Dissolved
D. CO
Immune complexes are removed from blood by ________?
A. B cell
B. Basophil
C. Plasma cell
D. Kupffer cell
Thromboxane is produced mainly by __________?
A. Liver
B. Platelets
C. Damaged tissue
D. Vascular endothelium
Increased blood viscosity and slow circulation causes_______?
A. RBC rouleax formation
B. Increased plasma skimming
C. Increased number of RBC in capillaries
D. None
Ions participating in clotting mechanism are________?
A. Iron
B. Copper
C. Calcium
D. Aluminum
Christmas factor is________?
A. PTA
B. PTC
C. VWA
D. Prothrombin
Small lymphocyte is _______?
A. Bigger than RBC
B. Same as the size of RBC
C. Smaller than RBC
D. None of these
The largest fraction of the total body fluid is______?
A. Extracellular fluid
B. Intracellular fluid
C. Plasma
D. Whole blood
Survival time of platelet is approximately_____?
A. 10 hours
B. 10 days
C. 10 weeks
D. 100 days
Serum is blood plasma without________?
A. Blood cells
B. Fibrinogen
C. Lymphocytes
D. Plasma colloids
Persons having anti- A and anti- B is agglutinins in their serum belong to which blood group______?
A. A
B. B
C. AB
D. O
Albumin is__________?
A. Nucleo protein
B. Chromo protein
C. Phospho protein
D. Simple protein
Fluid content of the blood is_______?
A. Plasma
B. Serum
C. Water
D. Tissue fluid
The only fixed cell of the connective tissue________?
A. Histiocyte
B. Lymphocyte
C. Neutrophils
D. Mast cell
Which of the following is not involved in blood clotting ?
A. Calcium
B. Prothrombin
C. Fibrinogen
D. Fe+2
Immunologically active cells are_______?
A. Plasma cells
B. MAST cells
C. Eosinophils
D. R.B.C s
For heparin which of the following is ?
A. Inhibits conversion of fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin
B. Interferes with action of thrombin
C. Is released by macrophages
D. Is released by mast cells
Which of the following vitamins is necessary for maturation of blood precursor cells_______?
A. Vit- A
B. Thiamine
C. Riboflavin
D. Cyano cobalamine
Erythropoietin is produced in the_______?
A. Bone marrow
B. Kidney
C. Liver
D. Spleen
Hematocrit relates to which of the following______?
A. Total blood volume
B. Total RBC volume
C. Total WBC vlume
D. Plasma filtrate
Serum is_______?
A. Plasma- clotting factors
B. Plasma- fibrin
C. Blood – RBC
D. Blood – all cellular elements
Drumstick is found in_____?
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Platelets
Which of them is not affected by vitamin K deficiency_______?
A. Factor IX
B. Factor VII
C. Factor II
D. Factor VIII
The normal absolute eosinophil count is______?
A. 40 to 440 cells/C.mm
B. 500 to 900 cells/C.mm
C. 1200 to1500cells/C.mm
D. 1500 to 2,000cells/C.mm
At what temperature blood is stored______?
A. -4°C
B. 4°C
C. 6°C
D. 8°C
Which of the following represents most dangerous situation_______?
A. Rh+ ve mother, who is bearing 2nd Rh+ ve child
B. Rh+ ve mother, bearing her 2nd + ve child
C. Rh+ ve mother, bearing her 1st Rh – ve child
D. Rh – ve mover, bearing her 1stRh + ve child
Histiocytes are______?
A. Scavenger cells
B. Allergic cells
C. Released in immunologic response
D. Leukocytes
Which of the following agents in not likely to be found in plasma ?
A. Thrombin
B. Fibrinogen
C. Prothrombin
D. Calcium ion
Hemoglobin has____?
A. Four polypeptide chains, 2α, 1β,1Υ chain
B. Four heme molecules and four polypeptide chains
C. Four heme molecules, 2α and 2β chains
D. One heme and one globin molecule
Life cycle of RBC is_______?
A. 12 days
B. 90 days
C. 120 days
D. One month
IN acute infection which of the following is found_______?
A. Leucopenia
B. Leukocytosis
C. Neutrophilia
D. Neutropenia
T- lymphocytes function to________?
A. Antibody production
B. Complement activation
C. Lymphokine production and delayed hypersensitivity
D. Immediate hypersensitivity
The anticoagulant of choice used in the blood bank is________?
A. Calcium oxalate
B. Heparin solution
C. Acid citrate dextrose solution
D. Sodium fluoride
Normal myeloid / erythroid ratio is_______?
A. 1:1000
B. 1:5000
C. 1:100
D. 1:50
Clotting factor common to extrinsic and intrinsic pathway is______?
A. Factor II
B. Factor III
C. Factor V
D. Factor VII
Hemostasis depends upon all the following, EXCEPT_______?
A. Calcium
B. Prothrombin
C. Vitamin B
D. Vitamin K
Activation of which one of the following coagulation factors is not essential for hemostasis______?
A. XII
B. XI
C. IX
D. X
The half-life of plasma Albumin is approximately_________?
A. 7 days
B. 20 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days
Embryonic hemoglobin is composed of_____?
A. Gamma and beta
B. Epsilon and gamma
C. Alpha and beta
D. Gamma and alpha
Lymphocytes are located in each of the following tissues or organs EXCEPT one. The one exception is______?
A. Brain
B. Spleen
C. Lymph nodes
D. Thymus gland
Which of the following causes lysis of clot_______?
A. Fibrin
B. Plasmin
C. Hyaluronidase
D. Coagulase
Plasma ceruloplasmin alpha 2 globulins is a_______?
A. alpha 1 globulin
B. alpha 2 globulin
C. beta 1 globulin
D. beta 2 globulin
Thrombopoietin is produced by________?
A. Monocytes
B. Liver
C. Megakaryocyte
D. Megakaryoblast
Bacteria are most commonly ENGULFED by ______?
A. Neutrophilic leukocytes
B. Large granular lymphocytes
C. Small lymphocytes
D. Killer cells
Prothrombin time is useful for_______?
A. Detection of clot retraction
B. Platelet count
C. In hemophilia
D. For evaluation in a patient taking anticoagulant drugs
The conversion of prothrombin to thrombin, the factor participate along with calcium is_______?
A. Labile factor
B. Stable factor
C. Fibrin
D. Thromboplastin
What is the normal PH of human blood_____?
A. 7.0
B. 7.2
C. 7.35 to 7.4
D. 7.6
Which of the following is not useful for coagulation_____?
A. Plasmin
B. Thrombin
C. Calcium
D. Fibrin
Mineral essential for Hb synthesis________?
A. Copper
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Phosphorus
Differential white blood cell counts in the laboratory are useful in the diagnosis of______?
A. Anemia
B. Eosinophilia
C. Vitamin deficiency
D. Spherocytosis
The best screening test for hemophilia is______?
A. BT
B. PT
C. PTT
D. CRT
Bleeding time is prolonged in a person who_____?
A. Has liver disease
B. Takes coumarin derivatives
C. Lacks factor VIII
D. Takes large quantities of aspirin
Secondary granules of neutrophils contain_____?
A. Lactoferrin
B. Catalase
C. Myeloperoxidase
D. Nucleosidase
Biconcave shape of RBC helps by_______?
A. Increasing flexibility
B. Increasing surface area
C. Carrying more Hemoglobin
D. Passing easily through smaller capillaries
Iron is stored in______?
A. RBC
B. Reticule endothelial system
C. Plasma
D. All
AB blood group antigen are known as ________ factors?
A. Duffy
B. Landsteiner
C. Rhesus
D. Lutheran
Patient with anemia tends to have all, except_______?
A. Compensatory increase in cardiac output
B. Increased incidence of heart murmurs
C. Pallor of mucous membranes
D. A low PO2 in arterial blood
The function common to neutrophils, monocytes & macrophages is________?
A. Immune response
B. Phagocytosis
C. Liberation of histamine
D. Destruction of old erythrocytes
CO2 is carried in the blood________?
A. In combination with hemoglobin
B. In physical solution in plasma
C. In combination with plasma proteins
D. All of the above
Acute bacterial pyogenic infection manifests as_______?
A. Leukopenia
B. Leukocytosis
C. Neutropenia
D. Lymphopenia
The normal A/G ratio in blood is_____?
A. 5:1
B. 2:1
C. 1:2
D. 1:1
The biological anticoagulant is________?
A. EDTA
B. Sodium citrate
C. Hirundine
D. Double oxalate mixture
Plasma thromboplastin antecedent is_________?
A. Anti-hemophiliac – A factor
B. Anti-hemophiliac – B factor
C. Anti-hemophiliac – C factor
D. Anti-hemophiliac – F factor
The principal site for granulocytic hemopoiesis in the adult human is__________?
A. The liver
B. The spleen
C. Red bone marrow
D. Yellow bone marrow
The universal blood recipient group is__________?
A. O- Ve
B. O+ Ve
C. AB- Ve
D. AB+ Ve
The function of plasma cell_______?
A. CMI
B. Phagocytosis
C. Opsonization
D. Antibody formation
Lysis of RBCs are seen in all of the following except__________?
A. Thalassemia
B. Methotrexate therapy
C. Obstructive jaundice
D. Sickle cell anemia
Infants acquire adult hemoglobin level at______?
A. Birth
B. End of 1st year
C. Puberty
D. 4 years
The hemoglobin % of a normal newborn is______?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 10
D. 30
Normal prothrombin time is____________?
A. 5-7 sec
B. 10-20 sec
C. 30 sec
D. 1 min
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Famous past tests Questions of Physiology
Find famous past tests of Physiology here below:
Which of the following cell type is not a precursor of erythrocyte_______?
A. PR erythroblast
B. Norm oblast
C. Reticulocyte
D. Myeloblast
Major basic protein is an important constituent of which leucocyte_______?
A. Neutrophil
B. Eosinophil
C. Basophil
D. Lymphocyte
Universal blood donor ill be a blood group of______?
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. AB positive
D. AB negative
Normal adult person’s blood contains_______?
A. 40% neutrophils
B. 30% lymphocytes
C. 20% eosinophils
D. 10% basophils
The eosinophil count in the peripheral blood smear is increased in________?
A. Allergic conditions
B. Anemia
C. Polycythemia
D. Typhoid fever
Intracellular and interstitial body fluids have similar_____?
A. Total osmotic pressure
B. Colloid osmotic pressure
C. Chloride ion concentrations
D. Potassium ion concentrations
Which of the following is not a vitamin K dependent procoagulant ?
A. Factor II
B. Factor VII
C. Factor IX
D. Factor XI
A patient with A – ve blood group can receive blood from_______?
A. Positive donor
B. B negative donor
C. AB positive donor
D. A negative donor
Delay in blood coagulation results from______?
A. Human thrombin
B. Heparin
C. Ferric chloride
D. Vit- K
Hemoglobin is the major buffer in blood, bicarbonate ions diffuse out of erythrocyte into plasma in exchange of______?
A. Potassium
B. Phosphate
C. Carbonic acid
D. Chloride ion
The function of vitamin K is_____?
A. Thrombin formation
B. Prothrombin formation
C. Fibrin formation
D. Thromboplastin formation
The most common problem with blood trans fusion_______?
A. Hemolytic reaction
B. Remission of disease
C. Hypokalemia
D. Metabolic acidosis
Histamine is present on surface of_______?
A. Lymphocytes
B. Mast cells
C. Neutrophils
D. Erythrocytes
To preserve blood for transfusion later_______?
A. Dilute with equal volume of 0.9% saline
B. Add solution of sodium citrate
C. Add solution of calcium chloride
D. Add fibrinogen
Megaloblasts are precursors of_______?
A. Megakaryocytes
B. Norm oblasts
C. Myelocytes
D. Macrocytes
Which of the following is one for a patient on coumarin (warfarin) therapy________?
A. Partial thromboplastin time ( PTT)
B. Prothrombin time (PT)
C. Bleeding time (BT)
D. Capillary fragility test (CFT)
Which of the following coagulation factors is deficient in classical hemophilia ?
A. VIII
B. IX
C. X
D. XII
Which of the following is not true about axonotmesis ?
A. Impairment of both sensory and motor function
B. Wallerian degeneration
C. Intact neural sheath is not present
D. Reversible loss, which will be regenerated i 6-8 wks
Broca’s area is concerned with______________?
A. Word formation
B. Comprehends language not speaking
C. Present in posterior part of temporal lobe
D. Is the confluence of somatic, auditory and visceral areas
DOPA and 5 – Hydroxytryptophan are clinically important because______________?
A. They cross Blood Brain Barriers
B. They are acidic precursors of Brain amines
C. They act as neuromodulators
D. They are metabolites of various neurogentic amines .
The pathway of pain from teeth and temperature is carried by ______?
A. Corticospinal tract
B. Corticocerebral tract
C. Lateral spinothalamic tract
D. Ventral spinothalamic tract
Which of the following acts as a neurotransmitter inhibitor _______?
A. Glutamate
B. GABA
C. Aspartic acid
D. Lysin
Blood supply to the brain during moderate exercise_________?
A. decreases
B. Remains constant
C. Increases
D. Increases then decreases
Afferent component of corneal reflex is mediated by ________?
A. Vagus nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Trigeminal nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
Following are extrapyramidal tracts except______?
A. Reticulospinal
B. Corticospinal
C. Rubrospinal
D. Vestibulospinal
The cell junctions allowing exchange of cytoplasmic molecules between two cells are called_________?
A. Gap junctions
B. Tight junctions
C. Anchoring junctions
D. Focal junctions
Sweat glands are supplied by only________?
A. Parasympathetic nerves
B. Sympathetic nerves
C. Sensory nerves
D. Motor nerves
Tissues with least regenerative potential is_______?
A. Nerve
B. Skin
C. Cardiac muscle
D. None of the above
Red colour blindness is called_______?
A. Deuteranopia
B. Protanopia
C. Protanomaly
D. Deuteranomaly
Pain producing substance is________?
A. Serotonin
B. Substance P
C. Histamine
D. Acetyl choline
Phagocytosis in the CNS is done by _______?
A. Astrocytes
B. Schwann cells
C. Microglia
D. Oligocytes
Function of GABA on CNS is_________?
A. Neuronal inhibition
B. Neuronal activation
C. Glial cell inhibition
D. Glial cell activation
Hyper kinetic syndromes such as chorea and athetosis are usually associated with pathological changes in________?
A. Motor areas of cerebral cortex
B. Anterior hypothalamus
C. Pathways for recurrent collateral inhibition in the spinal cord
D. Basal ganglia complex
In cerebellar disease, all the statements are correct except________?
A. The romberg’s sign is positive
B. There is adiodokokinesia
C. There is pendular knee jerk
D. There is involuntary termor
Which sensation is not lost on the side of lesion in brown squared syndrome ?
A. Touch
B. Vibration sense
C. Muscle sense
D. Temperature
First change to occur after nerve cut is_______________?
A. Schwan cell mitosis
B. Axonal sprouting
C. Myelin sheath degeneration
D. Nuclear disintegration
Which receptor is responsible for monitoring the rate of muscle stretch?
A. Nuclear bag intrafusal fibers
B. Nuclear chain
C. Golgi tendon organ
D. Pacinium corpuscles
Body temperature is maintained by _______?
A. Postural position
B. Covering of the body
C. Peripheral vasoconstriction
D. all of the above
Chromatolysis is_______?
A. Disintegrating of Nucleus
B. Disintegration of golgi apparatus
C. Disappearance of nissel granules
D. Decrease in cell size
In CNS, the myelination is carried out by ______?
A. Schwann cells
B. Astrocytes
C. Oligodendrocytes
D. Microglia
Breathing ceases upon destruction of the______?
A. Cerebrum
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Hypothalamus
D. Cerebellum
Voluntary movement of eye ball is controlled by_______?
A. Superior colliculus
B. Frontal eye field
C. Cerebellum
D. Visual cortex area
Receptors for olfactory sensation are present in _____?
A. Lateral walls
B. Nasal septum
C. Lateral wall and nasal septum above superior concha
D. None of the above
Centre of activity of autonomic nervous system is________?
A. Midbrain
B. Cerebrum
C. Hypothalamus
D. Pons
Group B fibers are present in________?
A. Intrafusal fibers of the muscle spindle
B. Golgi tendon apparatus
C. Autoonomic preganglionic fibers
D. Spinothalamic tracts
The temperature of body is controlled by__________?
A. Medulla
B. Precentral gyrus
C. Diencephalon
D. Hypothalamus
Middle ear deafness can be tested by_____________?
A. Babinsky test
B. Chvostek test
C. Finger – nose test
D. Weber’s test
Cell bodies of the neurons which carry taste sensation from the anterior 2/3rd of the tongue are located in_______?
A. Trigeminal nerve ganglion
B. Geniculate ganglion
C. Otic ganglion
D. Superior cervical ganglion
Hunger centre of brain is_________?
A. Hypothalamus
B. Stria nigra
C. Frontal lobe
D. Temporal lobe
Pain is conducted by________?
A. A-alpha fibers
B. A-beta fibers
C. A-gamma fibers
D. A-delta fibers
Following are the changes during accommodation except______?
A. Constriction of pupil
B. Dilatation of pupil
C. Convergence of eye ball
D. Increase in the anterior curvature of lens
Stimulating mechanoreceptors or nociceptors in mouth triggers the________?
A. Jaw opening reflex
B. Jaw clenching reflex
C. Jaw gnashing reflex
D. None of the above
In nerve , the magnitude of the action potential overshoot is normally a function of the______________?
A. Magnitude of the stimulus
B. Intracellular potassium concentration
C. extracellular sodium concentration
D. resting membrane potential
Axon hillock is part of the soma of neuron which________?
A. Has dense Nissl grandules
B. Has no Nissl granules
C. Is at commencement of dendrites
D. Is round in shape
Blood brain barriers is absent in all of the following areas except______?
A. Subfornical region
B. Habenuclear trigone
C. Area posterma
D. Neurohypophysis
Epicrritic perception of pain occurs at the level of_________?
A. Thalamus
B. Area 3,1,2
C. Areas 5,7
D. Pulvinar
Intention tremor is a feature of _______?
A. Loss of function of Thalamus
B. Loss of function of Hypothalamus
C. Loss of function of cerebellum
D. Loss of function of Basal ganglia
The most outer covering of nerve fibres is called as_____?
A. Neurolemma
B. Perineurium
C. Axolemma
D. Myelin sheath
Delta waves of Electroencephalogram have frequency of __________?
A. More than 14 cycles per second
B. Between 8 and 13 cycles per second
C. Less than 3.5 cycles per second
D. Between 4 and 7 cycles per second
Sensory receptors for pain are_________?
A. Pacinian corpuscles
B. End organs of Ruffini
C. End bulbs of Krause
D. Free nerve endings
The first physiological response to high environmental temperature is__________?
A. Sweating
B. Vasodilatation
C. Decrease heat production
D. Non- shivering thermogenesis
Function of Merkel’s cells is_______________?
A. Tactile sensation
B. Melanophage
C. Chemoreceptor
D. Proprioception
Copious flow of watery saliva is secreted in response to ________?
A. Parasympathetic stimulation
B. Sympathetic stimulation
C. CNS stimulation
D. sensory stimulation
Intensity of sound is measured in_______?
A. Diopters
B. Daltons
C. Decibels
D. Pounds
Pacinian corpuscles are major receptor for______________?
A. Pressure
B. Pain
C. Touch
D. Temperature
Resting membrane potential of nerve fiber is_______?
A. -70 mv
B. -90 mv
C. -55 mv
D. + 35 mv
Sympathetic stimulation causes ______?
A. Arteriolar constriction
B. Ciliary muscle contraction
C. Sweat secretion
D. All of the above
Gag reflex is mediated by _______ cranial nerve ?
A. VII
B. IX
C. X
D. XII
Satiety center in hypothalamus is regulated by ________________?
A. Gastric dilatation
B. Blood glucose levels
C. Blood insulin levels
D. All of the above
Swallowing center is situated in_______________?
A. MIdbrain
B. Pons
C. Medulla
D. Cerebellum
Wallenberg degeneration is seen in______________?
A. Proximal cut end of nerve with cell body
B. Distal cut end of nerve without cell body
C. Both the free ends of the cut nerve
D. All are true
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Past Tests of Physiology with Answers
Find more past questions of Physiology here below:
First change to occur in the distal segment of cut_____?
A. Myelin degeneration
B. Axonal degeneration
C. Mitosis of schwann cell
D. Sprouting
Neurotransmitter in nigrostrial pathway is______?
A. Dopamine
B. GABA
C. Acetyl choline
D. Nor epinephrine
The term ‘myopia’ refers to _____?
A. Near sightedness
B. Far sightedness
C. Constriction of the pupil
D. Dilation of the pupil
Aphasia is most likely associated with a lesion in_________?
A. Broca’s area
B. Sensory area
C. Primary motor area
D. Visual area
Abdominal visceral pain is transmitted by ________?
A. fibers
B. fibers
C. Parasympathetic fibers
D. Sympathetic fibers
The Sensory receptors serving the stretch reflex are classified as___________?
A. Proprioceptors
B. Nociceptors
C. Exteroceptors
D. Chemo receptors
Unmyelinated fibres differ from myelinated fibers in that they ______?
A. Have increased excitability
B. Have to nodes of Ranvier
C. Have no power of regeneration
D. Have no association of Schwann cells
Tremors are seen in disorder of__________?
A. Basal ganglia
B. Pain pathway
C. Pyramidal tract
D. Parathyroid gland
Which of the following is not true for myelinated nerve fibers______________?
A. Impulse through myelinated fibers is slower than non- myelinated fibers
B. Membrane currents are generated at nodes of Ranvier
C. Saltatory conduction of impulses is seen
D. Local anesthesia is effective only when the nerve is not covered by myelin sheath
Lesions within the basal ganglia produce the following signs except_______________?
A. Hypotonia
B. Tremor
C. Hemiballismus
D. Athetosis
Sensations of pain from teeth and temperature are carried by________?
A. Corticospinal tract
B. Corticobulbar tract
C. Lateral spinothalamic tract
D. Ventral spinothalamic tract
Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers are_________?
A. Somatic only
B. Parasympathetic
C. Sympathetic
D. Cholinergic
Respiratory center is situated in__________?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Spinal cord
C. Midbrain
D. Hypothalamus
Pain sensation from the lateral extremities is transmitted by________?
A. Spino thalmamic tract
B. Dorsal column
C. Corticospinal tract
D. Spinocerebellar tract
Pain is conducted by_______?
A. A-alpha fibers
B. A-beta fibers
C. A-gamma fibers
D. A-delta fibers
Stimulation of baroreceptors results in________?
A. Increase in heart rate
B. Decreased vagal discharge
C. Increased sympathetic discharge
D. Decrease in blood pressure
2nd heart sound is characterized by all except_______?
A. Due to closure of semilunar valves
B. Is occasionally split
C. Has longer duration than 1st heart sound
D. Marks the onset of diastole
Heart muscle, true are all except________?
A. Act as syncytium
B. Has multiple nuclei
C. Has gap junctions
D. Has branching
Isovolumetric relaxation ends immediately after_________?
A. AV Valve closes
B. When ventricular pressure falls below aortic pressure
C. When ventricular pressure falls below atrial pressure
D. None of the above
Ventricular muscle receives impulses directly from the_______?
A. Purkinje system
B. Bundle of HIS
C. Right and left bundle branches
D. AV node
Distribution of blood flow is mainly regulated by the__________?
A. Arteries
B. Arterioles
C. Capillaries
D. Venules
Effect on force of contraction of heart is_______?
A. Chronotropic effect
B. Dromotropic effect
C. Bathmotropic
D. Ionotropic effect
Cardiac output is maximum to __________?
A. Liver
B. Brain
C. Kidney
D. Heart
Absolute period when whole heart is in diastole is_________?
A. 0.7 seconds
B. 0.3 seconds
C. 0.7 seconds
D. 0.4 seconds
Cardiac cycle duration in man is________?
A. 0.4 seconds
B. 0.8 seconds
C. 1.2 seconds
D. 1.6 seconds
Coronary blood flow is usually predominantly controlled by______?
A. Auto regulation
B. Hormones
C. Parasympathetic impulses
D. Sympathetic impulse
Fastest conducting tissue in human heart _________?
A. AV node
B. SA node
C. Bundle of His
D. Purkinje fibers
Closure of aortic valve occurs before the following event_______?
A. Isovolumetric contraction
B. Isovolumetric relaxation
C. Pre-diastole
D. Pre-systole
Cardiac index is related to ________?
A. cardiac output and body weight
B. Cardiac output and body surface area
C. Cardiac output and work of the heart
D. Stroke volume and pulse rate
Stimulation of barorceptor leads to _______?
A. Increased blood pressure, increased heart rate
B. Decreased B.P , decreased heart rate
C. Increased B.P, decreased heart rate
D. Decreased B.P, increased heart rate
Consider the following statements________?
A. Starling’s law of heart states that increase in force of contraction is directly related to cardiac ouput
B. Staling’s law of heart states that the force of ventricular contraction is directly related to the end diastolic volume
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Minimum blood pressure is in______?
A. Aorta
B. Arteries
C. Capillaries
D. Venules
The largest function of the total peripheral resistance is due to _______?
A. Venules
B. Arterioles
C. Capillaries
D. Precapillary sphincters
Cardiac output is a measure of________?
A. Peripheral resistance X tissue fluid
B. Peripheral resistance X cardiac rate
C. Blood pressure X cardiac rate
D. Heart rate X blood volume
The ventricular repolarization in ECG is best seen in_______?
A. “P” wave
B. “Q” wave
C. “R” wave
D. “T” wave
Parasympathetic stimulation of heart causes_______?
A. SA node decreases firing
B. Increased AV node excitability
C. Decreased ventricular contraction
D. Tachycardia
The dicrotic notch on the aortic pressure curve is caused by________?
A. Closure of the pulmonary valve
B. Rapid filling of the left ventricle
C. Closure of the aortic valve
D. Contraction of the atria
The function of Carotid body is_______________?
A. Measures the change in Po2 in arterial blood
B. Measures Po2 in venous blood
C. Measures the changed in CO2 in arterial blood
D. Measures the change in CO2 in venous blood
What is common between systemic and pulmonary circulation is________?
A. Volume of the circulation per minute
B. Peripheral vascular resistance
C. Pulse Pressure
D. Total Capacity
The velocity of conduction in the Purkinjie fibers of the heart is___________?
A. 1 to 4 m/sec
B. 5 to 8 m/sec
C. 9 to 12 m/sec
D. More than 12 m/sec
Which of the following increases turbulence in blood flow ?
A. Reynolds number < 2000
B. Decrease in velocity of blood
C. Decrease in density of blood
D. Increase in diameter of blood vessel
Glomerular capillary pressure differ from other capillaries of body in________?
A. Higher filtration pressure
B. Lower filtration pressure
C. Both of the above
D. None
In determining blood pressure by auscultatory method________?
A. The loudest sound is the diastolic pressure
B. Systolic pressure estimation tends to be lower than those make by palpatory method
C. The first sound heard is the systolic pressure
D. The sounds that are heard are generated in heart
The following factors increase the cardiac output except________?
A. Preload
B. After load
C. Heart rate
D. Myocardial contractility
SA node acts as a pacemaker of the heart because of the fact that it_________?
A. is capable of generating impulses
B. Has rich sympathetic innervation
C. Has poor cholinergic innervation
D. Generates impulses at the highest rate
Increase in carotid sinus pressure produces_________?
A. Reflex hyperpnea
B. Reflex Hypercapnia
C. Reflex tachycardia
D. Reflex Hypercapnia
The effects of Adrenaline on heart are all except________?
A. Increases heart rate
B. Decreases myocardial irritability
C. Increases force of contraction
D. Increases oxygen uptake by heart
First heart sound occurs during the period of_________?
A. Isotonic relaxation
B. Isovolumetric relaxation
C. Isovolumetric contraction
D. Isotonic contraction
Cardiac output in L/min divided by heart rate equals__________?
A. Cardiac efficiency
B. Cardiac index
C. Mean stroke volume
D. Mean arterial pressure
Under resting condition the cardiac output is _______ L/ min ?
A. 2.5
B. 4.25
C. 5.25
D. 9.5
Conduction velocity is least in_______?
A. AV node
B. SA node
C. SA node
D. Purkinje fibers
Absolute refractory period in heart________?
A. Lasts till cardiac contraction
B. Longer than refractory period in skeletal muscle
C. A phase of cardiac cycle in which heart cannot be stimulated by any amount of stimulus
D. Corresponds with duration of action potential
E. All of the above
Increased functional demand on the heart produces increased size of the myocardium by _______?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypertrophy
C. Fatty infiltration
D. Increased amounts of fibrous connective tissue
Peripheral resistance is maximum in_________?
A. Aorta
B. Artery
C. Arteriole
D. Vein
Starling’s law of the heard_________?
A. Does not operate in the failing heart
B. Does not operate during exercise
C. Explains the increase in cardiac output that occurs when venous return is increased
D. Explains the increase in cardiac output when the sympathetic nerves supplying the heart stimulated
All the heart valves are open during which stage of cardiac cycle _________?
A. Systolic ejection
B. Isovolumetric relaxation
C. Isovolumetric contraction
D. None of the above
Cardiac output is not affected by ________?
A. Heart rate
B. Peripheral resistance
C. Systolic blood pressure
D. Venous return
Stroke output of each ventricle in normal adult is______?
A. 30 ml
B. 130 ml
C. 70 ml
D. 5 liters
Normally, the rate of the heart beat in a human is determined by __________?
A. The bundle of His
B. All cardiac muscle
C. The sinoatrial node
D. The cervical ganglion
The first heart sound is produced by the_____________?
A. Closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves
B. Opening of the aortic and pulmonary valves
C. Closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves
D. Opening of the mitral and tricuspid valves
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