physiology mcqs

We call the Physiology as “The study of animal functions including human. In physiology, investigation may be done with respect to the cells, tissues, organ system and overall whole body of the organism.

Study of human body is the example of Physiology because it is that branch which deals with the living organism or matter as cells, tissues or organs where physical and chemical phenomenon involved.

If you want to become a doctor then physiology helps to work in lab with efficiency or in clinical settings. But this is not limited, one can work with medicine and human body. It also helps to medical representatives.

There are generally five types of Physiology which are Physiology, Cell Physiology, Organ Physiology, System Physiology or Pathological Physiology.

A physiologist can also become a doctor as it is being enrolled in Pakistan Forces like Army, Navy and PAF as a doctor who join Pak Forces through Short Service Regular Commission.

If we think that is it a course then we say that Physiology is “a scientific discipline that is necessary to medical practice and human health” particularly related to the human body functions from tissues, cells and system of organs.

In the following Physiology MCQs with answers are given. Some candidates ask that they want to prepare Physiology MCQs online then this is best place to learn about Physiology.

Shaheen Forces Academy prepares students who want to join Pak Army, PAF or Pak Navy as a Medical Officer or M-Cadet. It provides all types of tests and material regarding initial tests of M-Cadet. In medical related tests, area of Physiology MCQs in one of the parts of it, so that candidates who have applied for commissioning in Army, Navy and Air Force through Short Service Commission, they can easily prepare their initial academic tests.

All these questions are just like Physiology MCQs bank which clearly helps for all types of entry tests or academic tests related to the Physiology.

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Best Physiology MCQs for Short Service Commission

The intrinsic factor for vitamins B12 absorption is produced in the_____?

A. Liver
B. Stomach
C. Pancreas
D. Duodenum

Peristalsis involves coordinated contraction and relaxation_____?

A. Above and below the food bolus
B. Lateral and medial to food bolus
C. Dorsal and ventral to food bolus
D. None of the above

Which is not produced enteroendocrinally______?

A. Intrinsic factor
B. Secretin
C. Motilin

The most important action of Secretin is to_____?

A. neutralize the acid from the stomach
B. increase secretion of bicarbonates by pancreas
C. decrease gastric secretion
D. Cause contraction of pyloric sphincter

Trypsin is an activator of all of the following enzymes EXCEPT_____?

A. Chymotrypsinogen
B. Pepsinogen
C. Proelastase
D. Procolipase

Which of the following secretions has a very high pH____?

A. Gastric juice
B. Pancreatic juice
C. Bile in gall bladder
D. Saliva

Of the following is a reflex mediated by vagus ?

A. Bile flow from liver
B. Pancreatic secretion of bicarbonate
C. Cephalic phase of gastric secretion
D. Mucous secretion from the Brunner’s glands

Secretin is secreted by______?

A. Duodenum
B. Pancreas
C. Liver
D. Stomach

Peristalsis in the gut is due to _____?

A. Preperistalitic intestinal secretion
B. Mecharical distension
C. Simultaneous action of circular and longitudinal muscles
D. Extrinsic nervous influence

The final sugars in intestinal chyme are______?

A. Glucose & fructose
B. Ribose & mannose
C. Ribose & xylulos
D. Xylulose & fructose

Cephalic phase of gastric secretion is mediated by _______?

A. Neuro hormones
B. Vagus
C. Hormones
D. Gastric

Most potent stimulus for secretin is______?

A. Dilattion of intestine
B. Acid chyme
C. Protein
D. Fat

Cholagogues are the substances, which cause______?

A. Contraction of the gallbladder
B. Increase concentration of bile
C. Increase secretion of bile
D. Favours acidification of bile

Small intestinal peristalsis is controlled by _______?

A. Myentric plexus
B. Meissners plexus
C. Vagus nerve
D. Parasympathetic

Maximum secretory glands in stomach are______?

A. Fundic glands
B. Pyloric glands
C. Gastric glands
D. Brunner’s glands

Vagal stimulation following intake of food does not affect secretion of______?

A. Stomach
B. Pancrease
C. Parotid
D. Gall bladder

Pepsinogen is activated by _______ ?

A. Enterokinase
B. Low pH
C. Trypsin
D. Chymotrypsin

Pharyngeal phase of deglutition_____?

A. Is a reflex mechanism
B. Vocal cords are closed
C. Is a voluntary mechanism
D. A and B

Production of bile takes place in______?

A. The gall bladder
B. Kupffer cells
C. Hepatic duct
D. Hepatocytes

The most important function of hydrochloric acid in the stomach is_____?

A. Destruction of bacteria
B. Neutralization of chyme
C. Activation of pepsinogen
D. Stimulation of pancreatic secretion

Histamine stimulate the secretion of_______?

A. Gastrin by stomach
B. Pancreatic enzymes
C. HCL by stomach
D. Amylase by salivary gland

Bilirubin is conjugated with which of the following ?

A. Glycine
B. Glutamine
C. Acetyl CoA
D. Glucuronic acid

Bile color is due to______?

A. Creatinine
B. Bilirubin
C. Globulin
D. 5 mercaptan purine

Bile salt repeats its cycle in______?

A. 4 times a day
B. 2 times in between meals
C. 8 times a day
D. 10 times a day in fasting

Stomach accommodates the meal by______?

A. Deceptive relaxation
B. Receptive relaxation
C. Reactive relaxation
D. None of the above

All the following causes the secretion of gastric juice during cephalic phase EXCEPT_____?

A. Food in the mouth
B. Sight of food
C. Food in the stomach
D. Thought of food

Within which parts of a gastric gland are chief cells located_____?

A. Fundus
B. Isthmus
C. Neck
D. Gastric pit

Gastro – intestinal hormone in the following is______?

A. Pepsin
B. Ptyalin
C. Cholecystokinin
D. Trypsin

Cephalic phase of gastric secretion can be demonstrated by the following experiment____?

A. Heidenhan’s pouch
B. Condition reflex
C. Pavlov’s pouch
D. None of the above

Fats absorbed with the help of bile salts are_____?

A. Free fatty acid
B. Glycerol
C. Higher fattery acids, diglycerides and monoglycereides
D. All of the above

Urine urobilinogen is absent in______?

A. Obstructive jaundice
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Hemolytic jaundice
D. All of the above

Pancreatic juice rich in water and electrolytes but poor in enzymes is secreted in response to ______?

A. Pancreatozymine
B. Cholecystokinin
C. Secretin
D. Proteins

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Physiology MCQs related to past Tests of Short Service Commission 

Maximum absorption of bile occurs at_____?

A. Jejunum
B. Duodenum
C. Ileum
D. Colon

Gastric secretion is stimulated by all the following except______?

A. Secretin
B. Gastric distension
C. Gastrin
D. Vagal stimulus

Secretin does not cause _______?

A. Bicarbonate secretion
B. Augments the action of CCK
C. Contraction of pyloric sphincter
D. Gastric secretion increase

The only sugar normally absorbed in the intestine against a concentration gradient is_______?

A. Xylose
B. Mannose
C. Glucose
D. Galactose

Parietal cells of gastric mucosa secrete _____ ?

A. HCl
B. Gastrin
C. Mucin
D. All of the above

The duodenum secretes a hormone which has following effects except_______?

A. Causes copious pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate and poor in enzymes
B. Increases gastric motility
C. Causes gall bladder to contract and sphincter of oddi to relax
D. Leads to meager flow of pancreatic juice rich in enzymes

Gastrin is produced by ______?

A. Pancreas
B. Gastric antral cells
C. Pituitary
D. All

All are actions of CCK except_______?

A. Relax lower esophageal sphincter
B. Increased pancreatic secretion
C. Increased gastric secretion
D. Causes GB contraction

Best stimuli for secretion is_____?

A. Protein
B. Acid
C. Fat
D. Bile

Nutrients are mainly absorbed in______?

A. Small intestine
B. Large intestine
C. Liver
D. Stomach

Pancreas produce_____?

A. Pepsinogen
B. Chymotrypsinogen
C. Hydrochloric acid
D. All of the above

Which of the following body secretions is maximum______?

A. Salivary
B. Gastric
C. Sweat
D. Lacrimal

Bile acids are derived from______?

A. Bile salts
B. Bile pigments
C. A & B
D. Cholesterol

In jaundice, there is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia which is most likely due to _____?

A. Hepatitis
B. Cirrhosis
C. Obstruction of bile canaliculi
D. Increased break down of red cells

Hypothyroidism should be treated with daily administration of which of the following thyroid hormone preparations ?

A. Thyroid extract
B. Thyroglobulin
C. Thyroxine (T4)
D. Triiodothyronine (T3)

Hypercalcemia associated with malignancy is most often mediated by ____?

A. Parathyroid hormone ( PTH)
B. Parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP)
C. Interleukin – 6 ( IL- 6)
D. Calcitonin

Insulin facilitates glucose uptake in____?

A. Kidney tubules
B. Red blood cells
C. Brain
D. Skeletal muscle

Not a glycoprotein________?



A. Secretion increases following injury
B. Favours protein synthesis
C. Enhances antigen – antibody reactions
D. Tends to lower blood pressure

All are seen in Cushing ‘s syndrome except______?

A. Truncal obesity
B. Hypertension
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Poor wound healing

Which is false regarding insulin_____?

A. Secreted by beta cells
B. Glycopeptide
C. Causes lipogenesis
D. Promotes glycogenesis

Human chorionic gonadotrophin hormone (HCG)______?

A. Acts on the uterus to maintain integrity of endometrium in early pregnancy
B. Production is greatest in the last three months of pregnancy
C. Can be identified in the urine of pregnant women by immunological technique
D. Is a steroid hormone

Regarding myxedema the following are true except______?

A. Swollen, oedematous look of the face
B. Impotency, amenorrhea
C. B.M.R increased by 30 -45%
D. Dullness, loss of memory

The catecholamines secreted by adrenal medulla______?

A. Increases the blood glucose level by favoring glycogenolysis in blood and muscle cells
B. Decrease the level of free fatty acids and ketone bodies
C. Increase the splanchnic blood flow
D. Are under the control of parasy

In thyrotoxicosis , there is_____?

A. Decrease in calcium excretion
B. Increase in serum proteins which bind throxine
C. Potentiation of catecholamine action
D. Increase in calcium excretion

Progesterone production in the ovary is primarily by______?

A. Stroma
B. Corpora albicans
C. Corpora lutea
D. Mature follicles

All the following hormones are secreted by adrenal cortex except_______?

A. Estriol
B. Cortisol
C. Corticosterone
D. Aldosterone

Contraceptive action of combined pill is mainly due to______?

A. Decrease in tubal motility
B. Prevents the fertilization
C. Prevents the implantation of fertilized egg
D. Inhibits ovulation

Epinephrine is most closely related in structure to ________?

A. Niacin
B. Tyrosine
C. Methionine
D. Glycerol

Steroid hormones are believed to enter target cells via______?

A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Carrier – mediated endocytosis
C. Cholesterol lined pores in the plasma membrane
D. Simple diffusion

Which of the following statements about the action of the somatomedin is true ?

A. They inhibit protein synthesis
B. They antagonize the effect of insulin
C. They promote growth of bone and cartilage
D. They mediated the local effects of Somatostatin

Hormone released during increased stress is_____?

A. Cortisol
B. Thyroxine
C. Growth hormone
D. Somatostatin

Features of hypothyroidism does not include______?

A. Obseity
B. Hypertension
C. High TSH levels
D. Increased risk of infections

The primary site of action of antidiuretic hormone is on the_______?

A. Distal tubules and collecting ducts in the kidney
B. Afferent arterioles of the glomeruli
C. Thirst center in the hypothalamus
D. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus

The hormone , which stimulates uterus contraction and lets down milk, is______?

A. Progesterone
B. Prolactin
C. Prostaglandin
D. Oxytocin

Which hormone does not have corresponding release hormone produced in pituitary ?

B. Prolactin

Thyroxine causes all the following except_______?

A. Decreased cell metabolism
B. Increased oxygen consumption
C. Increased pulmonary ventilation
D. Increased basal metabolism

Which of the following hormones increase the sensitivity of heart to epinephrine______?

A. Parathyroid
B. Insulin
C. Thyroid
D. Glucagon

Which of the following is called hunger hormone______?

A. Epinephrine
B. Glucagon
C. Pituitary
D. Thyroxine

Posterior pituitary insufficiency leads to_______?

A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Dwarfism
D. Cretinism

The blood glucose level in diabetes mellitus is decreased by removal of the_______?

A. Thyroid
B. Parathyroids
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Posterior pituitary

Adrenaline used for controlling of bleeding during surgery may result in______?

A. Syncope
B. Cardiac arrhythmias
C. Drastic fall in blood pressure
D. Precipitation of allergic reaction

The primary effect of calcitonin is_____?

A. Bone deposition
B. Bone resorption
C. Increases intestinal absorption of calcium
D. Decreases intestinal absorption of calcium

The decreased phosphate level seen in hyper parathyroidism is due to _____?

A. Decreased intestinal phosphate absorption
B. Increased calcium excretion
C. Decreased renal phosphate absorption
D. Increased loss of phosphate in urine

The hormone whose deficiency causes diabetes insipidus is released from which nucleus of pituitary ______?

A. Supraoptic
B. Pre optic
C. Suprachiasmatic
D. Paraventricular

Aldosterone production is controlled by _______?

A. Anterior pituitary gland
B. Posterior pituitary gland
C. Hypothalamus
D. Adrenal gland

Hormones, which stimulate spermatogenesis, are_______?

A. Insulin and glucagon
B. Thyroxine and parathormone
C. A.D.H. and Oxytocin
D. Testosterone and F.S. H

Which of the following results due to excessive parathormone secretion______?

A. Increased excretion of phosphates
B. Increased serum calcium
C. Decrease excretion of calcium
D. Increase excretion of calcium

Bone metabolism is controlled by ______?

A. Vit – D & Calcium
B. Parathormone
C. Calcitonin
D. All of the above

Changes in biological activity occurring daily are referred as ______ rhythm?

A. Circadian
B. Circa triginatan
C. Circa sestin
D. Circannual

Iodine is primarily important in the biochemical synthesis of______?

B. Thyroxine
C. Adrenaline
D. Calcitonin

Trousseau’s sign and chovstek’s sings are positive in_______?

A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hypoparathyroidism
D. Hyperthyroidism

Vasopressin is synthesized in the_______?

A. Anterior pituitary
B. Hypothalamus
C. Juxtaglomerular apparatus
D. Vasomotor center


A. Increases reabsorption of sodium
B. Increases exceretion of potassium
C. Increases retention of sodium
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

A phaeochromocytoma is a tumour of the______?

A. Adrenal cortex
B. Parathyroids
C. Pituitary
D. None of the above

Which of the following is associated with a low concentration of ionized calcium in the serum ?

A. Hypothyroidism
B. Osteogenesis imperfecta
C. Paget’s disease of the bone
D. Tetany

Which of the following hormones is released from the posterior pituitary ?

B. Antidiuretic hormone
C. Growth hormone
D. Luetinizing hormone

All of the following are adverse effects of long- term corticosteroids EXCEPT______?

A. Hypoglycemia
B. Psychosis
C. Peptic ulcers
D. Osteoporosis

Which amongst the following is the gold standard for demonstrating hcG____?

A. Radio immune assay
B. Latex agglutination
C. Immunofluorescence

Which one of the following is a precursor of both gonadal and adrenocortical hormones_______?

A. Progesterone
B. Cortisol
C. Testosterone
D. Corticosterone

Inhibit b hormone has effect on______?

A. Sertoli cells
C. Seminiferous tubules
D. Spermatogenesis

Glucose tolerance test is usually done to assess______?

A. Acute Pancreatitis
B. Carcinoma of Head of Pancreas
C. Acinar Function of the Pancreas
D. Endocrine Dysfunction of Pancreas

Which of the following hormones act via cAMP ?

A. Insulin
B. Parathormone
C. Vasopressin
D. Adrenalin

Insulin increases the activity of_____?

A. HMG. CoA reductase
B. HMG- CoA lyase
C. HMG- CoA synthase
D. Thiolase

Hyperthyroidism can be caused by______?

A. Clonidine
B. Amiodarone
C. Hydralazine
D. Penicillamine

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More Physiology MCQs for M-Cadet

Hormones FSH & LH of anterior pituitary gland acts on_______?

A. Testis but not ovaries
B. Ovaries but not testis
C. Both Testis and ovaries
D. Adrenal cortex

Removal of parathyroid gland produces the following changes EXCEPT______?

A. Decline plasma calcium level
B. Decrease in plasma phosphate level
C. Neuromuscular hyperexcitability
D. hypo calcemic tetany

Fertilized ovum usually gets attached to the uterus wall in _____?

A. 14 days
B. 28 days
C. 8 weeks
D. 1 week

Aldosterone secretion is increased when there is a fall in______?

A. Plasma K+
B. Plasma Na+
C. pH of the plasma
D. Angiotensin II level

Hormone responsible for milk ejection_____?

A. Oxytocin
B. Estrogen
C. Progesterone
D. Prolactin

The most significant immediate result of lowered serum calcium is_____?

A. Weakened heart action
B. Decalcification of bones
C. Decalcification of teeth
D. Hyperirritability of nerves and muscles

Tetany is characterized by ________?

A. Hypotonicity of muscles
B. Hypertonicity of muscles
C. Increased serum calcium concentration
D. None of the above

The effect which is seen due to decrease in serum calcium concentration is_____?

A. Relaxation of muscle
B. Excitability of the muscle
C. Increase the renal absorption
D. Depression of Nervous system

Paneth cells secrete which of the following ?

A. Antibacterial substance
B. Lipase
C. Maltase
D. Secretin

Following are the features of cretinism, except______?

A. Pot- belly
B. Idiotic look
C. Normal intelligence
D. Stunted growth

All of the following hormones have cell surface receptors except______?

A. Adrenalin
B. Growth Hormone
C. Insulin
D. Thyroxine

Osteoclasts are inhibited / modified and regulated by________?

A. Parathyroid hormone
B. Calcitonin
C. 1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferols
D. Tumor necrosis factor

Blood coagulation is impaired in______?

A. Tetany
B. Hyperparathyrodism
C. Rickets
D. None

A child is below the third percentile for height. Growth velocity is normal, but chronologic age is more than skeletal age. The most likely diagnosis is______?

A. Constitutional delay in growth
B. Genetic short stature
C. Primordial dwarfism
D. Hypopituitarism

Noradrenaline is differentiated from adrenaline by increasing______?

A. Heart rate
B. Cardiac output
C. Peripheral resistance
D. All of the above

Following are local hormones except_____?

A. Insulin
B. Heparin
C. Bradykinin
D. Acetylcholine

Oxytocin causes all accept_______?

A. Lactogenesis
B. Milk ejection
C. Contraction of uterine muscle
D. Myoepithelial cell contraction

Cortisol levels are maximum during_____?

A. Sleep
B. Early morning
C. Evening
D. Have no change

IN the adrenal gland, androgens are produced by the cells in the______?

A. Zona glomerulosa
B. Zona reticularis
C. Zona fasciculata
D. Medulla

FSH is secreted by_______?

A. Chromophobes
B. Basophils
C. Acidophiles
D. Theca intern cells

Reverse T3 is______?

A. Synthetic derivative
B. Isomerisation product of T3 and active
C. Isomerisation product of T3 and inactive
D. Reverse of T3

Menopausal hormonal relations are______?

A. Lh/FSH increase
B. Gonadotropins increase , estrogens decrease
C. Estrogens and gonadotropins decrease
D. Both increase

Not true about T3 and T4 is______?

A. T3 more potent than T4
B. T4 binds to prealbumin
C. Absorption of T4 is more than T3
D. Concentration of T4 is more than T3

Ovulation is associated with sudden rise in______?

A. Prolactin
B. Testosterone
C. L.H
D. Oxytocin

There absorption of sodium chloride in kidneys is controlled by the hormones_______?

A. Adrenaline
B. Aldosterone
C. A.D.H. and vasopressin
D. All of the above

The following hormones increase the blood glucose level except______?

A. Thyroxine
B. Parathormone
C. Growth Hormone
D. Epinephrine

Glucocorticoids decrease inflammatory reaction by reducing______?

A. Activity of histamine
B. Release of histamine
C. Fibroblastic activity
D. Neutrophils

The supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus is believed to control secretion of which of the following hormones ?

A. Antidiuretic hormone
B. Oxytocin
C. Growth hormone
D. Adreno corticotrophic hormone

Acromegaly is a disorder of_______?

A. Excess growth hormone secreting
B. Excess thyroxine secretion
C. Excess ACTH secretion
D. Excess FSH secretion

All the following hormones bind to cell surface receptors of the target tissues EXCEPT______?

A. Thyroid stimulating hormone
B. Glucagon
C. Estrogen
D. Epinephrine

Which of these following is not an effect of insulin ?

A. Decreased gluconeogenesis
B. Increased glycogenolysis
C. Increased transport of glucose into cells
D. Induction of lipoprotein lipase

The hormone having the maximum effect on granulation wound healing is____?

A. Thyroxine
B. Cortisone
C. Parathormone
D. Epinephrine

Endocrine glands that are not influenced by the pituitary gland include the______?

A. Thyroid gland, testes , and adrenal medulla
B. Adrenal medulla, parathyroids, and the islets of langerhans
C. Adrenal cortex, parathyroids and ovaries
D. Pancreas, adrenal medulla and thyroid gland

Glucagon is secreted by ____?

A. Alpha cells of pancreas
B. Beta cells of pancreas
C. Gamma cells of pancreas
D. None of the above

The receptors for parathyroid hormone are present in______?

A. Osteoblasts
B. Osteoclasts
C. Periosteum
D. Cartilage

Negative BMR is observed with_____?

A. Pituitary disturbance
B. Thyroid disturbance
C. Parathyroid
D. All of the above

Glucocorticoids have all the following actions except______?

A. Increase in blood glucose level
B. Increase in protein catabolism
C. Anti – insulin action in peripheral tissues
D. Decrease in glucose uptake by the heart

Excess of cortisol causes_______?

A. Conn’s syndrome
B. Cushing ‘s syndrome
C. Acromegaly
D. Diabetes insipidus

A diet deficient in calcium will result in______?

A. Stimulation of the thyroid gland
B. Increased ability to cross – link fibrin
C. Production of Calcitonin and a low blood calcium level
D. Production of parathyroid hormone and bone resorption

Adrenal gland has two parts; cortex and medulla. Which of the following is correct_______?

A. Cortex is under the control of ACTH
B. Both cortex and medulla are under the control of autonomic nervous system
C. Cortex is exocrine and medulla is endocrine
D. All of the above

Enzymes, which play an important role in calcification are_______?

A. Enolase and Calcitonin
B. Alkaline phosphatase and catalase
C. Alkaline phosphatase and pyrophophatase
D. Pyrophosphatase and carbonic anhydrase

Endocrine disorder is the primary cause of_______?

A. Acromegaly
B. Albright’s syndrome
C. Paget’s disease
D. Fibrous dysplasia

Low calcium level will cause_______?

A. Hyper excitability of wrist muscle
B. Weak heart action
C. Tetanus
D. All of the above

Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones is primarily under inhibitory control of hypothalamus ?

C. Somatostatin
D. Prolactin

Which of the following hormones exerts the least effect on calcium metabolism of bone tissue ?

A. Anderogen
B. Estrogen
C. Nor epinephrine
D. Thyroid hormone

Which of the following hormones does not affect growth ?

A. Oxytocin
B. Somatotropins
C. Thyroid hormone
D. Estrogen

Calcitonin is released by _______?

A. Parafollicular cells of thyroid
B. Chief cells of thyroid
C. Granular cells of adrenal gland
D. Stratum fasciculata of adrenal gland

Function of ADH is________?

A. Water reabsorption
B. Water excretion
C. Na+ absorption
D. K+ secretion

Which hormone , together with the catecholamines enhances the tone of vascular smooth muscle and assists in elevating blood pressure ?

A. Parathyroid hormone
B. Glucagon
C. Thyroxine
D. Cortisol

A child with stunted growth with a stuffed – belly, and short stature with mental retardation is suffering from the deficiency of which of the following_______?

A. Thyroxine
B. Growth hormone
C. Rickets
D. Parathyroid

Deficiency of cortisol causes______?

A. Cushing syndrome
B. Graves’ disease
C. Addison disease
D. Acromegaly

Due fear which of the following hormones increases rapidly _______?

A. Growth hormones
B. Epinephrine
C. Corticosteroid
D. Thyroid hormone

Which hormone is released when serum calcium decreases ?

A. Parathormone
B. Calcitonin
C. Thyroxine
D. Adrenaline

In children, hypothyroidism causes______?

A. Acromegaly
B. Cretinism
C. Gigantism
D. Myxodedema

In conn’s disease, there is an excess of_______?

A. Adrenaline
B. Aldosterone
C. Cortisol
D. Noradrenaline

The oxygen tension of the mixed venous blood is_______?

A. 25 mm Hg
B. 40 mm Hg
C. 55 mm Hg
D. 70 mm Hg

In Haldane effect CO2 dissociation curve is shifted to_____?

A. Left
B. Right
C. Does not shift
D. None of the above

The most common form of hypoxia is_______?

A. Hypoxic
B. Stagnant
C. Anemic
D. Histotoxic

Which of the following does not stimulate alveolar hyperventilation ?

A. Hypoxia
B. Hypercapnia
C. Acidosis
D. Stretching of airways

Arterial PO₂ is reduced in______?

A. Anemia
B. KCN poisoning
C. Pulmonary hypoventilation
D. CO poisoning

In which of the following diseases would you expect to find an increase in thickness of the respiratory membrane ?

A. Emphysema
B. Asthma
C. Pulmonary artery thrombosis
D. Skeletal abnormalities of the chest

Muscle of expiration______?

A. Diaphragm
B. Internal intercostals
C. External intercostals
D. Rcti Abdominis

Oxygen dissociation cure is shifted to the right in all except______?

A. Fall in pH
B. Rise in temperature
C. Increase of 2, 3 3 DPG
D. HbF

The alveolar ventilation in an individual with tidal volume: 600 ml, dead space 150 ml and respiratory rate of 15/ minute is_______?

A. 2.5 lit/Min
B. 4.0 lit /Min
C. 6.75 Lit/Min
D. 9 Lit/Min

The intrapleural pressure at the end of deep inspiration is ______?

A. – 4 mm Hg
B. +4 mm Hg
C. -18 mm Hg
D. + mm Hg

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More Physiology MCQs  for Medical, Nursing Jobs & Short Service Commission 

Hypoxia is characterized by ______?

A. Low arterial PO₂
B. Intense chemoreceptor response
C. Favorable response to 100% oxygen
D. All of the above

Alveolar O₂ tension is_______?

A. Increased by hyperventilation
B. Decreased by hyperventilation
C. Similar to venous O₂ tension
D. Not affected by respiratory depression

Surfactant is secreted by______?

A. Pnemocyte I
B. Pnemocyte II
C. Goblet cells
D. Pulmonary vessels

Vital capacity is decreased, timed vital capacity (FEV 1.0 %) is normal in_______?

A. Bronchial asthma
B. Scoliosis
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Acute bronchitis

The type of hypoxia present in high attitude is_____?

A. Anemic Hypoxia
B. Hypoxic Hypoxia
C. Stagnant Hypoxia
D. Histotoxic Hypoxia

The volume of gas in the lungs at the end of normal expiration is_____?

A. Expiratory reserve volume
B. Functional residual capacity
C. Residual volume
D. Inspiratory reserve volume

A decrease in the arterial PO₂ is seen in______?

A. Decrease in hemoglobin concentration of arterial blood
B. Paralysis of inspiratory muscles
C. Sluggish blood flow
D. High altitudes

Kussmamul’s respiration occurs in response to______?

A. Decrease in pH of blood
B. Increase in pH of blood
C. Obstructive pulmonary disease
D. Carbon monoxide poisoning

Energy expenditure during normal breathing______?

A. 25% – 50% of total energy spent
B. 50% -75% of total energy spent
C. 15% – 20% of total energy spent
D. 2% – 3% of total energy spent

Normal intrapleural pressure during the start of inspiration is _____ mm of Hg?

A. -2
B. -5
C. 0
D. -7

In cases of hypercapnia there is_______?

A. Increased pH of blood
B. Decreased pH of blood
C. Remains same
D. Increased oxygen concentration in blood

Carbon monoxide poisoning causes_______?

A. Hypoxic hypoxia
B. Oxygen dissociation curve shifts to left
C. Cyanosis
D. Diffusion capacity of lungs decreases

An important non- respiratory function of lungs is_______?

A. Anion balance
B. Sodium balance
C. Potassium balance
D. Ca+2 balance

What is true about pneumothorax ?

A. Total chest wall diameter is increased
B. Interpleural pressure becomes more negative
C. The concentration of surfactant is reduced in alveoli
D. Increased lung compliance

Inability of exchange of oxygen through lung tissue if known as______?

A. Anoxic anoxia
B. Anoxia
C. Histotoxic hypoxia
D. Ischemic hypoxia

The approximate amount of air left in the lungs after maximal forced expiration in a normal woman_________?

A. 0.5 L
B. 2.0 L
C. 1.1 L
D. 1.8 L

Carotid body function in an organ work as______?

A. Differential pressure of oxygen in arterial blood
B. Differential pressure of oxygen in venous blood
C. Differential pressure of oxygen in in tissue fluids
D. Differential pressure of oxygen in in hemoglobin synthesis

The transport of CO is diffusion limited because________?

A. Bind avidly with Hb
B. Partial pressure of CO is less
C. CO is less absorbed in water
D. Alveolar membrane is less permeable

Oxygen as an emergency drug is contraindicated in_______?

A. Anaphylaxis
B. Asthma
C. Hyperventilation

The quantity of water lost in expired air each 24 hrs is about______?

A. 200 ML
B. 400 ML
C. 600 ML
D. 800 ML

Which of the following adaptations will be apt to increase the work capacity at high altitude________?

A. Increased workload, decreasing duration of exercise
B. Increased workload, increasing duration of exercise
C. Decreasing workload, increasing duration of exercise
D. Decreasing workload, decreasing duration of exercise

Bronchial circulation is associated with________?

A. Air conditioning
B. Drug absorption
C. Gaseous exchange
D. Reserve volume

The work of breathing_______?

A. is inversely related to lung compliance
B. remains constant during exercise
C. is not affected by respiratory
D. decreased in lying posture

Shift of the oxygen dissociation curve to right is caused by the following factors EXCEPT____?

A. Increased 2,3 BPG
B. Increased temperature
C. Increased concentration of carbon – di – oxide
D. Increased concentration of oxygen

At high altitudes the following changes takes place except_______?

A. Increase in respiratory rate
B. Increases in depth of respiration
C. Increase in oxygen carrying capacity of blood
D. Increase in partial pressure of CO₂

Which of the following statements about pulmonary surfactant is false ?

A. It is secreted by Type II pneumocytes
B. It contains lecithin and sphingomyelin
C. It increases surface tension
D. It prevents collapse of smaller alveoli

Increase in partial pressure of CO2 leading to release of oxygen to the tissues is______?

A. Haldane effect
B. Bohr effect
C. Breur effect
D. Hamburger effect

Ventilation perfusion ratio is maximum in_____?

A. Base of lung
B. Apex of lung
C. Posterior lobe of lung
D. Middle lobe of lung

Vital capacity is a measure of________?

A. Tidal volume
B. Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory volume
C. Tidal volume plus inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume
D. Expiratory reserve volume plus reserve volume

Oxygen affinity decreases in_______?

A. Hypoxia
B. Hypothermia
C. HbF
D. Increased pH

Arterial O2 content is reduced in one of following _______?

A. Stagnant hypoxia
B. Anemic hypoxia
C. Histotoxic hypoxia
D. Hypoxic or arterial hypoxia

Oxygen affinity is increased by all except________?

A. Alkalosis
B. Hypoxia
C. Increased HbF
D. Hypothermia

Non- respiratory function of the lung is__________?

A. Dopamine metabolism
B. Adrenaline metabolism
C. Serotonin metabolism
D. PGE2 production

Smoking causes______?

A. Ciliary motility
B. Cellular hyperplasia
C. Mucous secretion
D. All of the above

Limitation of inspiration by vagal lung inflation signals is called the_______?

A. Autonomic reflex
B. Bainbridge reflex
C. Herring – Breur reflex
D. Dynamic stretch reflex

Cyanosis or bluish coloration of skin and mucus membrane depends upon________?

A. The relative proportion of reduced and oxygenated hemoglobin
B. The absolute amount of reduced hemoglobin
C. Thickness of the skin
D. Fragility of capillaries

During the initial part of inspiration, which of the following does not occur ?

A. Intrapulmonary pressure falls
B. Intra thoracic pressure rises
C. Intra-abdominal pressure rises
D. The partial pressure of O₂ in dead space rises

What effect does hyperventilation have on the oxygen binding affinity of hemoglobin ?

A. P50 and oxygen affinity decrease
B. P 50 and oxygen affinity increase
C. P 50 decreases and the oxygen affinity increases
D. P50 increase and the oxygen affinity decreases

The best stimulator of respiratory center is______?

A. Decrease in arterial carbon dioxide level
B. Increase in arterial carbon dioxide level
C. Increase in arterial oxygen level
D. None of the above

Oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the right by all of the following except______?

A. Rise in temperature
B. Rise in carbon dioxide tension
C. Rise in pH
D. Rise in H+ ion

Most effective method of assessing breathing is by measuring_____?

A. Tidal volume
B. Respiratory rate
C. Alveolar ventilation
D. FEV 1

The major sign of hypoventilations______?

A. Cyanosis
B. Dyspnea
C. Hypercapnia
D. Hypoxia

During inspiration when the diaphragm contracts, the intrapleural pressure becomes_______?

A. More negative
B. Less negative
C. Positive
D. Equal to the intra alveolar pressure

Tubuloglomerular feedback occurs in______?

A. ADH secretion in collecting duct
B. Constant solute load on distal tubule
C. Macula densa
D. Balance between ascending and descending loop of henle

Most of the sodium is reabsorbed in______?

C. Loop of henle
D. Vasa recta

The renal blood flow in (in ml/mt) is_____?

A. 250
B. 800
C. 1260
D. 1500

Ammonia in the kidney tubules is excreted in exchange for_______?

A. HCO₃-
B. Na+
C. CL-
D. PO4-2

Inulin clearance closely resembles____?

A. G.F.R
B. Renal plasma flow
C. Creatinine clearance
D. P.A.H. clearance

Which one of the following is not responsible for concentration of urine in the kidneys______?

A. Aldosterone
B. Angiotensin II
C. Vasopressin
D. Epinephrine

Two substances that can probably be used to determine filtration fraction are_____?

A. Inulin and mannitol
B. Urea and diodrast
C. PAH and Phenol red
D. Inulin and PAH

In renal glycosuria, the renal threshold for glucose is_____?

A. Low
B. High
C. Same
D. Greatly increased

Proximal renal tubule is most permeable to _______?

A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Bicarbonate
D. Ammonia

Major portion of glomerular filtrate is absorbed in______?

A. Loop of Henle
B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Collecting duct
D. Proximal segment

GFR is increased when______?

A. Plasma oncotic pressure is increased
B. Glomerular hydrostatic pressure is decreased
C. Tubular hydrostatic pressure is increased
D. Increased renal blood flow

Each kidney contains about ______ nephrons ?

A. One million
B. Two million
C. Four million
D. ½ million

The normal adult value of urine output_________?

A. 1.5 l/day
B. 3 l/day
C. 0.5 l/day
D. 2 l/day

Amount of glucose absorbed in proximal convoluted tubule_______?

A. 100%
B. 0%
C. 60%
D. 50%

Formation of a small volume of concentrated urine in dehydration is associated with_______?

A. More reabsorption in the PCT
B. More concentration in loop of Henle
C. More reabsorption of DCT and collecting ducts
D. All of these

The glomerular filtration rate of the human kidney may be determined by measuring the plasma clearance of______?

B. Urea
C. Inulin
D. Glucose

The kidney secrete all of the following hormones except______?

A. Renin
B. Erythropoietin
C. Vasopressin
D. 1,2,5 Dihydroxy cholecalciferol

Carbonic anhydrase in the kidney tubular cells is known to be associated with_____?

A. Urea
B. Chloride
C. Bicarbonate ion
D. Carbohydrate

In osmotic diuresis there is______?

A. Increase in renal blood flow
B. Increase in glomerular filtration rate
C. Increase in NaCl concentration in urine
D. Decrease in reabsorption of Na Cl

Tubular maximum for glucose is______?

A. 180 mg/dl
B. 325 mg/dl
C. 375 mg/dl
D. 375 mg/dl

The reabsorption of sodium chloride is increased in proximal convoluted tubules by hormones secreted from______?

A. Anterior pituitary
B. Posterior pituitary
C. Adrenal cortex
D. Adrenal medulla

The part of nephron” least permeable to water” is_______?

A. Proximal tubule
B. Descending limb of loop of Henle
C. Ascending limb of loop of Henle
D. Collecting tubule

In which segment of the nephron does tubular fluid has the highest osmolarity ?

A. Henle’s loop
B. Distal tubule
C. Proximal tubule
D. Collecting duct

Site of ADH action is_______?

A. Proximal tubule
B. Loop of Henle
C. Vasa recta
D. Collecting tubule

Diuresis is caused by_____?

A. Mannitol
B. Glycerol
C. Urea
D. All of the above

Macula dense in kidney is located in relation to_______?

C. Afferent arteriole
D. Efferent arteriole

Which of the following is important in renal excretion of hydrogen ion ?

A. Combining H+ with Cl- to form Hcl
B. Combining H+ and HCO₃- via enzyme carbonic anhydrase
C. Trapping H+ by acetate
D. Trapping H+ by NH₃+

The renal clearance of ________?

A. Creatinine indicates glomerular filtration rate
B. Inulin is lower than that of urea
C. Chloride increases after in injection of aldosterone
D. PAH continues to rise as the plasma concentration of PAH increases

Past Physiology Questions with Answers

Find more past MCQs of Physiology here below: 

True about nephron is_______?

A. Na is absorbed actively in descending loop of Henle
B. 60 to 70% of GFR is absorbed in proximal tubule
C. Absorption of water occurs in ascending loop of Henle
D. The filtrate reaching distal convoluted tubule is hypertonic with respect to surroundings

The hyperosmolarity of the renal medulla is due to increased content of_______?

A. K+
B. Na+
C. Glucose
D. NH4+

Renin secretion is stimulated by all except______?

A. Cardiac failure
B. Low Na+ in proximal tubule
C. Sympathetic stimulation
D. High Na+ in proximal tubule

What is the glomerular filtration rate ?

A. 100 ml/min
B. 125 ml/min
C. 150 ml/min
D. 175 ml/min

To measure renal plasma clearance compound should be_______?

A. <70,000 Mol.wt
B. Bound to plasma protein
C. Secreted by the tubules
D. Completely filtered by glomerulus

The renal threshold for glucose is______?

A. 180 mg / dl
B. 100 mg/dl
C. 120 mg/dl
D. 80 mg/dl

Maximum amount of glucose absorption occurs at______?

C. Loop of henle
D. None

Functional unit of kidney is_______?

A. Nephron
B. Glomerulus
C. Collecting ducts
D. Loop of Henle

Brush border is seen in______?

A. Bowman’s capsule
B. Proximal convoluted tubule
C. Distal convoluted tubule
D. Loop of Henle

In the human kidney, a renal papilla project directly into the______?

A. Ureter
B. Major calyx
C. Minor calyx
D. Renal pyramid

Renin is released from the kidney in all except_____?

A. Sympathetic stimulation
B. Decrease in the concentration of sodium ions in the proximal tubules
C. Decrease in the concentration of sodium ions in the distal tubules
D. Fall in the BP

Test for estimating kidney function is_______?

A. Serum creatinine
B. Serum phosphatase
C. Inulin test
D. Insulin test

A decrease in the urine output is called_____?

A. Dysuria
B. Nocturia
C. Oliguria
D. Plyuria

The end plate potential is characterized by______?

A. Propagation
B. All or none law
C. Depolarization
D. Hyper polarization

Potassium is maximum in_____?

A. Cell
B. Plasma
C. Interstitium
D. Bone

In excitable cells, repolarization is closely associated with, one of the following events________?

A. Na effux
B. Na influx
C. K efflux
D. K influx

All are features of skeletal muscle except______?

A. Cylindrical
B. Transverse striation
C. Centrally placed nuclei
D. Multiple nuclei

Rigor mortis results after death is due to________?

A. Failure of acetylcholine to diffuse
B. Failure of ATP supply
C. Failure of break down of calcium bridges
D. None of the above

The skeletal muscle action potential______?

A. Is not essential for contraction to occur
B. Has a prolonged plateau phase?
C. Spreads in ward to all parts of the muscle via the t- tubule system
D. Begins with an, in ward movement of K+ ins

Electromyography is used for_____?

A. To study muscle activity
B. Determine class II malocclusion
C. Determine the centric relation
D. Determine the centric occlusion

Skeletal muscles_______?

A. Contracts when calcium is taken up by sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. Contracts when actin and myosin filaments shorten
C. Contraction is initiated by calcium binding to troponin
D. Contraction is initiated by calcium binding to tropomyosin

The contractile element in a skeletal muscle is present in________?

A. Sarcolemma
B. Sarcoplasm
C. Myofibril
D. Endomysium

Which is caused by acetylcholine through nicotinic receptors_______?

A. Contraction of skeletal muscle
B. Decrease of heart rate
C. Secretion of saliva
D. Contraction of pupils

Which one of the following is a regulatory protein of the muscle ?

A. Troponin
B. Myosin
C. Actin
D. Protein- C

Skeletal muscles_______?

A. Contracts when calcium is taken up by sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. Contracts when actin and myosin filaments shorten
C. Contraction is initiated by calcium binding to troponin
D. Contraction is initiated by calcium binding to tropomyosin

Cardiac muscle contracts due to_____?

A. Extracellular Ca+2
B. Sarcoplasmic ca+2
C. Extracellular Na+
D. Intracellular Na+

Small packets of acetylcholine released randomly from the nerve cell membrane at rest Produces________?

A. Inhibitory post synaptic potential
B. Miniature end plate potential
C. Action potential
D. End plate potential

Upstroke of action potential would lead to_____?

A. Net current in an outward direction
B. Cell interior becomes more negative
C. Cell interior becomes less negative
D. None of the above

The main types of muscle cells are______?

A. Skeletal and cardiac
B. Smooth and cardiac
C. Smooth and skeletal
D. All of the above

Two major types of muscle fibres are found in humans_____?

A. white and brown
B. White and yellow
C. White and gray
D. White and red

The absolute refractory period of an action potential is due to _____?

A. Insufficient neurotransmitter
B. Depletion of intracellular Na+
C. Inactivation of Na+ k+ ATPase
D. Voltage inactivation of the Na+ channel

Increase in threshold level on applying subthreshold, slowly rising stimulus is known as _____?

A. Adaptation
B. Accommodation
C. Refractoriness
D. Electrotonus

The number of muscle fibers in a motor unit are least in_______?

A. Laryngeal muscles
B. Pharyngeal muscles
C. Muscles of middle ear
D. Extraocular muscles

Succinyl choline acts to block neuromuscular transmission by_______?

A. Inhibiting cholinesterase
B. Inhibiting the CNS
C. Depolarizing the motor end plate of skeletal muscle
D. Blocking the release of acetyl choline at the end plate

Non true regarding Na/K pump is______?

A. Pumps Na against a gradient
B. 5 Na+ exchanged for 2K+
C. Increase in intracellular Na
D. Hypocalcemia inhibits the pump

A motor unit is made up of_______?

A. A flexor muscle and an extensor muscle
B. A single skeletal muscle and all the motor peurons that supply it
C. A single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates
D. All the motor neurons in which response are observed after maximal stimulation of a single sensory nerve

The neuromuscular transmitter released at neuromuscular junction is________?

A. Dopamine
B. Epinephrine
C. Nor epinephrine
D. Acetylcholine

In myasthenia gravis_____?

A. there is lack of acetyl choline
B. Lack of acetyl choline receptors
C. There is isometric contraction
D. Muscles are rigid and tough

Tendon (or) ligament is attached to a bone through ______?

A. Tomes fibers
B. Interstitial fibers
C. Sharpey’s fibers
D. Haversian fibers

In an isotonic contraction of the muscle_______?

A. The muscle moves a load through a distance
B. The muscle is not able to move the load
C. The latent period of contraction is shorter than isometric contraction
D. The length of muscle is increased

The study of the electrical activity of the muscle is______?

C. Venn diagram

The following electrodes are used to detect the muscle activity without pain________?

A. Surface electrode
B. Round electrode
C. Hook electrode
D. Needle electrode

Contractile element in myofibril is____?

A. H band
B. Sarcoplasm
C. Sarcomere
D. A line

Calcium ions triggers muscle contraction by binding to _______?

A. Actin
B. Myosin
C. Troponin
D. Tropomyosin

Which of the following is not a marker of bone formation________?

A. Alkaline phosphatase
B. Osteocalcin
C. Procollagen marker
D. Hydroxy proline

Regulated bone growth through puberty occurs through_______?

A. Endophyseal plates
B. Ectophyeseal plates
C. Epiphyseal plates
D. Chondrophyseal plates

The acrosome reaction occurs, when the sperm______?

A. Enters the uterine cavity
B. Comes in contact with zone pellucida
C. Penetrates corona radiate
D. Penetrates cell membrane of oocyte

Decreased basal metabolic rate is seen in_____?

A. Obesity
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Feeding
D. Exercise

False about blood brain barrier is_______?

A. There are gaps between tight junctions at the active sites
B. There are no gaps between active sites
C. Less activity in the membrane
D. Fibronectin provides a barrier for diffusion

The processing of short-term memory to long term memory is done in_______?

A. Prefrontal cortex
B. Hippocampus
C. Neocortex
D. Amygdala

Valve of Hasner is present at__________?

A. Stensons duct
B. common bile duct
C. Naso lacrimal duct
D. maxillary Sinus

Regarding Golgi tendon organ true is ______?

A. Senses dynamic length of muscle
B. Involved in reciprocal innervation
C. a- motor neuron stimulation
D. Sense muscle tension

_________ is an example for rapidly acting neurotransmitter?

A. Somatostatin
B. Calcitonin
C. Substance P
D. Glycine

Primary cause of bleeding disorder in liver damage is due to______?

A. Decreased level of prothrombin
B. Lack of vitamin K
C. Platelet deficiency
D. Lack of vitamin B

Open faced nucleus in a cell signifies_____?

A. That the cell is resting
B. that the cell is active
C. nothing
D. that the cell is in transition phase

When a person lies down______?

A. There is immediate increase in venous return
B. Heart rate becomes stable at slightly more than normal
C. Cerebral blood flow increase & becomes stable at more than normal
D. Blood flow to the Apex of lung decrease

In a DNA molecule adenine always forms a linkage with_____?

A. Guanine
B. Cytosine
C. Thymine
D. Uracil

The oral and pharyngeal phases of swallowing take place very rapidly and last about____?

A. 3.5 seconds
B. 1-1.5 seconds
C. 6.0 seconds
D. 9.5 seconds

The major functional difference between DNA and RNA is___?

A. RNA contains ribose
B. DNA carries the information in all organizations
C. DNA is localized in nucleus
D. RNA does not contain thymine

Most important function of albumin in body is______?

A. Oncotic pressure
B. Drug transport
C. Toxic transport
D. Coagulation

In peripheral tissues which of the following contains substance P_____?

A. Plasma cell
B. Mast cell
C. Nerve terminal
D. Vascular endothelium

Which of the following events DO NOT occur in rods in response to light______?

A. Structural changes in rhodopsin
B. Activation of transducin
C. Decreased intracellular cGMP
D. Opening of Na+ channels

Gut associated lymphoid tissue ( GALT) is primarily located in____?

A. Lamina propria
B. Submucosa
C. Muscularis
D. Serosa

To check objective pain response, which is best used method__________?

A. Facial pain scale
B. Knee jerk reflex
C. H- Reflex
D. R III Reflex

T- lymphocytes play a primary role in_______?

A. Production of Antibodies
B. production of lymphokines and delayed hypersensitivity
C. Activation of complement system
D. Immediate Hypersensitivity

Which among the following is also called” peak less” insulin analog ?

A. Insulin lispro
B. Insulin glargine
C. Insulin aspart
D. Lente insulin

Meiotic division of male germ cells commence________?

A. During intra – uterine life
B. just before birth
C. by around 6 years after birth
D. by around 16 years

The percentage of body water is greater in________?

A. Male than in females
B. Children than in adult
C. Obese than in lean individuals
D. old than in young objects

During exercise_______?

A. Cerebral blood flow increases if there is increase in systolic blood pressure
B. Body temperature increases
C. Blood flow to muscle increases after 1½ minute
D. Lymphatic flow from muscle decrease

Plasma factor present in both serum & plasma is_______?

A. V
D. Fibrinogen

In PHC, which anticoagulant is used to send the blood sample for blood glucose_____?

B. Heparin
C. Potassium oxalate+ sodium fluoride
D. Potassium oxalate

Blood cells arise in bone marrow and are subject to______?

A. Irregular renewal
B. Regular renewal
C. Infrequent renewal
D. None of the above

Site of RBC formation in 20 years old healthy male is_______?

A. Flat bones
B. Long bones
C. Liver
D. Yolk sac

In human the Hb is_______?

A. HbH
B. HbA
C. HbM
D. HbS

Plasma cells are constituent of_______?

A. Nervous tissue
B. Muscular tissue
C. Epithelial tissue
D. Connective tissue

The tissue macrophages are derived from the______?

A. Neutrophil
B. Eosinophil
C. Monocyte
D. All of the above

In a blood sample antiserum A and antiserum B and Rh+ ve factor is added. No agglutination is seen. This is_______?

A. O group and Rh+ ve
B. O group and Rh- ve
C. AB group and Rh+ ve
D. AB group and Rh – ve

AB group has following agglutinins________?

A. Anti – A & Anti – B
B. Neither anti A nor anti – B
C. Anti – A
D. Anti – B

Citrate is a useful anticoagulant because of its ability to______?

A. Buffer basic groups of coagulation factors
B. Bind factor XII
C. Bind vitamin K
D. Chelate calcium

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Past Question of Physiology with Answers 

Find more past questions of Physiology with answers are here below: 

ESR depends on_________?

A. Viscidity
B. Fibrinogen
C. Rouleaux
D. All of the above

The normal brown red color of feces results from the presence of________?

A. Heme
B. Stercobilin
C. Biliverdin
D. Bilirubin diglucuronide

Which of the following is not a cause of secondary polycythemia ?

A.High Altitude
B. Myeloproliferative changes
C. Pheochromocytoma
D. Cerebellar hemangioblastoma

Which of the following clotting factor is involved only in extrinsic pathway ?

B. X

Plasma colloid osmotic pressure is due to_______?

A. Albumin
B. Globulin
C. Fibrinogen
D. Collagen

Decreased MCHC is found in_____?

A. Microcytic hypochromic anemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Sideroblastic anemia
D. Vit B12 deficiency

True statement regarding hematopoiesis includes____?

A. Spleen plays a major role in adults (in lymphopoiesis )
B. Committed stem cells differentiates into only one cell type
C. RES plays a role
D. None

A reliable screening test for platelet function is________?

C. Thrombin
D. Clot retraction time

CO2 is transported in plasma as________?

A. Bicarbonate
B. Carbomino compounds
C. Dissolved

Immune complexes are removed from blood by ________?

A. B cell
B. Basophil
C. Plasma cell
D. Kupffer cell

Thromboxane is produced mainly by __________?

A. Liver
B. Platelets
C. Damaged tissue
D. Vascular endothelium

Increased blood viscosity and slow circulation causes_______?

A. RBC rouleax formation
B. Increased plasma skimming
C. Increased number of RBC in capillaries
D. None

Ions participating in clotting mechanism are________?

A. Iron
B. Copper
C. Calcium
D. Aluminum

Christmas factor is________?

D. Prothrombin

Small lymphocyte is _______?

A. Bigger than RBC
B. Same as the size of RBC
C. Smaller than RBC
D. None of these

The largest fraction of the total body fluid is______?

A. Extracellular fluid
B. Intracellular fluid
C. Plasma
D. Whole blood

Survival time of platelet is approximately_____?

A. 10 hours
B. 10 days
C. 10 weeks
D. 100 days

Serum is blood plasma without________?

A. Blood cells
B. Fibrinogen
C. Lymphocytes
D. Plasma colloids

Persons having anti- A and anti- B is agglutinins in their serum belong to which blood group______?

A. A
B. B
D. O

Albumin is__________?

A. Nucleo protein
B. Chromo protein
C. Phospho protein
D. Simple protein

Fluid content of the blood is_______?

A. Plasma
B. Serum
C. Water
D. Tissue fluid

The only fixed cell of the connective tissue________?

A. Histiocyte
B. Lymphocyte
C. Neutrophils
D. Mast cell

Which of the following is not involved in blood clotting ?

A. Calcium
B. Prothrombin
C. Fibrinogen
D. Fe+2

Immunologically active cells are_______?

A. Plasma cells
B. MAST cells
C. Eosinophils
D. R.B.C s

For heparin which of the following is ?

A. Inhibits conversion of fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin
B. Interferes with action of thrombin
C. Is released by macrophages
D. Is released by mast cells

Which of the following vitamins is necessary for maturation of blood precursor cells_______?

A. Vit- A
B. Thiamine
C. Riboflavin
D. Cyano cobalamine

Erythropoietin is produced in the_______?

A. Bone marrow
B. Kidney
C. Liver
D. Spleen

Hematocrit relates to which of the following______?

A. Total blood volume
B. Total RBC volume
C. Total WBC vlume
D. Plasma filtrate

Serum is_______?

A. Plasma- clotting factors
B. Plasma- fibrin
C. Blood – RBC
D. Blood – all cellular elements

Drumstick is found in_____?

A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Platelets

Which of them is not affected by vitamin K deficiency_______?

A. Factor IX
B. Factor VII
C. Factor II
D. Factor VIII

The normal absolute eosinophil count is______?

A. 40 to 440 cells/
B. 500 to 900 cells/
C. 1200 to1500cells/
D. 1500 to 2,000cells/

At what temperature blood is stored______?

A. -4°C
B. 4°C
C. 6°C
D. 8°C

Which of the following represents most dangerous situation_______?

A. Rh+ ve mother, who is bearing 2nd Rh+ ve child
B. Rh+ ve mother, bearing her 2nd + ve child
C. Rh+ ve mother, bearing her 1st Rh – ve child
D. Rh – ve mover, bearing her 1stRh + ve child

Histiocytes are______?

A. Scavenger cells
B. Allergic cells
C. Released in immunologic response
D. Leukocytes

Which of the following agents in not likely to be found in plasma ?

A. Thrombin
B. Fibrinogen
C. Prothrombin
D. Calcium ion

Hemoglobin has____?

A. Four polypeptide chains, 2α, 1β,1Υ chain
B. Four heme molecules and four polypeptide chains
C. Four heme molecules, 2α and 2β chains
D. One heme and one globin molecule

Life cycle of RBC is_______?

A. 12 days
B. 90 days
C. 120 days
D. One month

IN acute infection which of the following is found_______?

A. Leucopenia
B. Leukocytosis
C. Neutrophilia
D. Neutropenia

T- lymphocytes function to________?

A. Antibody production
B. Complement activation
C. Lymphokine production and delayed hypersensitivity
D. Immediate hypersensitivity

The anticoagulant of choice used in the blood bank is________?

A. Calcium oxalate
B. Heparin solution
C. Acid citrate dextrose solution
D. Sodium fluoride

Normal myeloid / erythroid ratio is_______?

A. 1:1000
B. 1:5000
C. 1:100
D. 1:50

Clotting factor common to extrinsic and intrinsic pathway is______?

A. Factor II
B. Factor III
C. Factor V
D. Factor VII

Hemostasis depends upon all the following, EXCEPT_______?

A. Calcium
B. Prothrombin
C. Vitamin B
D. Vitamin K

Activation of which one of the following coagulation factors is not essential for hemostasis______?

D. X

The half-life of plasma Albumin is approximately_________?

A. 7 days
B. 20 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days

Embryonic hemoglobin is composed of_____?

A. Gamma and beta
B. Epsilon and gamma
C. Alpha and beta
D. Gamma and alpha

Lymphocytes are located in each of the following tissues or organs EXCEPT one. The one exception is______?

A. Brain
B. Spleen
C. Lymph nodes
D. Thymus gland

Which of the following causes lysis of clot_______?

A. Fibrin
B. Plasmin
C. Hyaluronidase
D. Coagulase

Plasma ceruloplasmin alpha 2 globulins is a_______?

A. alpha 1 globulin
B. alpha 2 globulin
C. beta 1 globulin
D. beta 2 globulin

Thrombopoietin is produced by________?

A. Monocytes
B. Liver
C. Megakaryocyte
D. Megakaryoblast

Bacteria are most commonly ENGULFED by ______?

A. Neutrophilic leukocytes
B. Large granular lymphocytes
C. Small lymphocytes
D. Killer cells

Prothrombin time is useful for_______?

A. Detection of clot retraction
B. Platelet count
C. In hemophilia
D. For evaluation in a patient taking anticoagulant drugs

The conversion of prothrombin to thrombin, the factor participate along with calcium is_______?

A. Labile factor
B. Stable factor
C. Fibrin
D. Thromboplastin

What is the normal PH of human blood_____?

A. 7.0
B. 7.2
C. 7.35 to 7.4
D. 7.6

Which of the following is not useful for coagulation_____?

A. Plasmin
B. Thrombin
C. Calcium
D. Fibrin

Mineral essential for Hb synthesis________?

A. Copper
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Phosphorus

Differential white blood cell counts in the laboratory are useful in the diagnosis of______?

A. Anemia
B. Eosinophilia
C. Vitamin deficiency
D. Spherocytosis

The best screening test for hemophilia is______?


Bleeding time is prolonged in a person who_____?

A. Has liver disease
B. Takes coumarin derivatives
C. Lacks factor VIII
D. Takes large quantities of aspirin

Secondary granules of neutrophils contain_____?

A. Lactoferrin
B. Catalase
C. Myeloperoxidase
D. Nucleosidase

Biconcave shape of RBC helps by_______?

A. Increasing flexibility
B. Increasing surface area
C. Carrying more Hemoglobin
D. Passing easily through smaller capillaries

Iron is stored in______?

B. Reticule endothelial system
C. Plasma
D. All

AB blood group antigen are known as ________ factors?

A. Duffy
B. Landsteiner
C. Rhesus
D. Lutheran

Patient with anemia tends to have all, except_______?

A. Compensatory increase in cardiac output
B. Increased incidence of heart murmurs
C. Pallor of mucous membranes
D. A low PO2 in arterial blood

The function common to neutrophils, monocytes & macrophages is________?

A. Immune response
B. Phagocytosis
C. Liberation of histamine
D. Destruction of old erythrocytes

CO2 is carried in the blood________?

A. In combination with hemoglobin
B. In physical solution in plasma
C. In combination with plasma proteins
D. All of the above

Acute bacterial pyogenic infection manifests as_______?

A. Leukopenia
B. Leukocytosis
C. Neutropenia
D. Lymphopenia

The normal A/G ratio in blood is_____?

A. 5:1
B. 2:1
C. 1:2
D. 1:1

The biological anticoagulant is________?

B. Sodium citrate
C. Hirundine
D. Double oxalate mixture

Plasma thromboplastin antecedent is_________?

A. Anti-hemophiliac – A factor
B. Anti-hemophiliac – B factor
C. Anti-hemophiliac – C factor
D. Anti-hemophiliac – F factor

The principal site for granulocytic hemopoiesis in the adult human is__________?

A. The liver
B. The spleen
C. Red bone marrow
D. Yellow bone marrow

The universal blood recipient group is__________?

A. O- Ve
B. O+ Ve
C. AB- Ve
D. AB+ Ve

The function of plasma cell_______?

B. Phagocytosis
C. Opsonization
D. Antibody formation

Lysis of RBCs are seen in all of the following except__________?

A. Thalassemia
B. Methotrexate therapy
C. Obstructive jaundice
D. Sickle cell anemia

Infants acquire adult hemoglobin level at______?

A. Birth
B. End of 1st year
C. Puberty
D. 4 years

The hemoglobin % of a normal newborn is______?

A. 8
B. 12
C. 10
D. 30

Normal prothrombin time is____________?

A. 5-7 sec
B. 10-20 sec
C. 30 sec
D. 1 min

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Famous past tests Questions of Physiology 

Find famous past tests of Physiology here below: 

Which of the following cell type is not a precursor of erythrocyte_______?

A. PR erythroblast
B. Norm oblast
C. Reticulocyte
D. Myeloblast

Major basic protein is an important constituent of which leucocyte_______?

A. Neutrophil
B. Eosinophil
C. Basophil
D. Lymphocyte

Universal blood donor ill be a blood group of______?

A. Positive
B. Negative
C. AB positive
D. AB negative

Normal adult person’s blood contains_______?

A. 40% neutrophils
B. 30% lymphocytes
C. 20% eosinophils
D. 10% basophils

The eosinophil count in the peripheral blood smear is increased in________?

A. Allergic conditions
B. Anemia
C. Polycythemia
D. Typhoid fever

Intracellular and interstitial body fluids have similar_____?

A. Total osmotic pressure
B. Colloid osmotic pressure
C. Chloride ion concentrations
D. Potassium ion concentrations

Which of the following is not a vitamin K dependent procoagulant ?

A. Factor II
B. Factor VII
C. Factor IX
D. Factor XI

A patient with A – ve blood group can receive blood from_______?

A. Positive donor
B. B negative donor
C. AB positive donor
D. A negative donor

Delay in blood coagulation results from______?

A. Human thrombin
B. Heparin
C. Ferric chloride
D. Vit- K

Hemoglobin is the major buffer in blood, bicarbonate ions diffuse out of erythrocyte into plasma in exchange of______?

A. Potassium
B. Phosphate
C. Carbonic acid
D. Chloride ion

The function of vitamin K is_____?

A. Thrombin formation
B. Prothrombin formation
C. Fibrin formation
D. Thromboplastin formation

The most common problem with blood trans fusion_______?

A. Hemolytic reaction
B. Remission of disease
C. Hypokalemia
D. Metabolic acidosis

Histamine is present on surface of_______?

A. Lymphocytes
B. Mast cells
C. Neutrophils
D. Erythrocytes

To preserve blood for transfusion later_______?

A. Dilute with equal volume of 0.9% saline
B. Add solution of sodium citrate
C. Add solution of calcium chloride
D. Add fibrinogen

Megaloblasts are precursors of_______?

A. Megakaryocytes
B. Norm oblasts
C. Myelocytes
D. Macrocytes

Which of the following is one for a patient on coumarin (warfarin) therapy________?

A. Partial thromboplastin time ( PTT)
B. Prothrombin time (PT)
C. Bleeding time (BT)
D. Capillary fragility test (CFT)

Which of the following coagulation factors is deficient in classical hemophilia ?

C. X

Which of the following is not true about axonotmesis ?

A. Impairment of both sensory and motor function
B. Wallerian degeneration
C. Intact neural sheath is not present
D. Reversible loss, which will be regenerated i 6-8 wks

Broca’s area is concerned with______________?

A. Word formation
B. Comprehends language not speaking
C. Present in posterior part of temporal lobe
D. Is the confluence of somatic, auditory and visceral areas

DOPA and 5 – Hydroxytryptophan are clinically important because______________?          

A. They cross Blood Brain Barriers
B. They are acidic precursors of Brain amines
C. They act as neuromodulators
D. They are metabolites of various neurogentic amines .

The pathway of pain from teeth and temperature is carried by ______?

A. Corticospinal tract
B. Corticocerebral tract
C. Lateral spinothalamic tract
D. Ventral spinothalamic tract

Which of the following acts as a neurotransmitter inhibitor _______?

A. Glutamate
C. Aspartic acid
D. Lysin

Blood supply to the brain during moderate exercise_________?

A. decreases
B. Remains constant
C. Increases
D. Increases then decreases

Afferent component of corneal reflex is mediated by ________?

A. Vagus nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Trigeminal nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve

Following are extrapyramidal tracts except______?

A. Reticulospinal
B. Corticospinal
C. Rubrospinal
D. Vestibulospinal

The cell junctions allowing exchange of cytoplasmic molecules between two cells are called_________?

A. Gap junctions
B. Tight junctions
C. Anchoring junctions
D. Focal junctions

Sweat glands are supplied by only________?

A. Parasympathetic nerves
B. Sympathetic nerves
C. Sensory nerves
D. Motor nerves

Tissues with least regenerative potential is_______?

A. Nerve
B. Skin
C. Cardiac muscle
D. None of the above

Red colour blindness is called_______?

A. Deuteranopia
B. Protanopia
C. Protanomaly
D. Deuteranomaly

Pain producing substance is________?

A. Serotonin
B. Substance P
C. Histamine
D. Acetyl choline

Phagocytosis in the CNS is done by _______?

A. Astrocytes
B. Schwann cells
C. Microglia
D. Oligocytes

Function of GABA on CNS is_________?

A. Neuronal inhibition
B. Neuronal activation
C. Glial cell inhibition
D. Glial cell activation

Hyper kinetic syndromes such as chorea and athetosis are usually associated with pathological changes in________?

A. Motor areas of cerebral cortex
B. Anterior hypothalamus
C. Pathways for recurrent collateral inhibition in the spinal cord
D. Basal ganglia complex

In cerebellar disease, all the statements are correct except________?

A. The romberg’s sign is positive
B. There is adiodokokinesia
C. There is pendular knee jerk
D. There is involuntary termor

Which sensation is not lost on the side of lesion in brown squared syndrome ?

A. Touch
B. Vibration sense
C. Muscle sense
D. Temperature

First change to occur after nerve cut is_______________?

A. Schwan cell mitosis
B. Axonal sprouting
C. Myelin sheath degeneration
D. Nuclear disintegration

Which receptor is responsible for monitoring the rate of muscle stretch?

A. Nuclear bag intrafusal fibers
B. Nuclear chain
C. Golgi tendon organ
D. Pacinium corpuscles

Body temperature is maintained by _______?

A. Postural position
B. Covering of the body
C. Peripheral vasoconstriction
D. all of the above

Chromatolysis is_______?

A. Disintegrating of Nucleus
B. Disintegration of golgi apparatus
C. Disappearance of nissel granules
D. Decrease in cell size

In CNS, the myelination is carried out by ______?

A. Schwann cells
B. Astrocytes
C. Oligodendrocytes
D. Microglia

Breathing ceases upon destruction of the______?

A. Cerebrum
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Hypothalamus
D. Cerebellum

Voluntary movement of eye ball is controlled by_______?

A. Superior colliculus
B. Frontal eye field
C. Cerebellum
D. Visual cortex area

Receptors for olfactory sensation are present in _____?

A. Lateral walls
B. Nasal septum
C. Lateral wall and nasal septum above superior concha
D. None of the above

Centre of activity of autonomic nervous system is________?

A. Midbrain
B. Cerebrum
C. Hypothalamus
D. Pons

Group B fibers are present in________?

A. Intrafusal fibers of the muscle spindle
B. Golgi tendon apparatus
C. Autoonomic preganglionic fibers
D. Spinothalamic tracts

The temperature of body is controlled by__________?

A. Medulla
B. Precentral gyrus
C. Diencephalon
D. Hypothalamus

Middle ear deafness can be tested by_____________?

A. Babinsky test
B. Chvostek test
C. Finger – nose test
D. Weber’s test

Cell bodies of the neurons which carry taste sensation from the anterior 2/3rd of the tongue are located in_______?

A. Trigeminal nerve ganglion
B. Geniculate ganglion
C. Otic ganglion
D. Superior cervical ganglion

Hunger centre of brain is_________?

A. Hypothalamus
B. Stria nigra
C. Frontal lobe
D. Temporal lobe

Pain is conducted by________?

A. A-alpha fibers
B. A-beta fibers
C. A-gamma fibers
D. A-delta fibers

Following are the changes during accommodation except______?

A. Constriction of pupil
B. Dilatation of pupil
C. Convergence of eye ball
D. Increase in the anterior curvature of lens

Stimulating mechanoreceptors or nociceptors in mouth triggers the________?

A. Jaw opening reflex
B. Jaw clenching reflex
C. Jaw gnashing reflex
D. None of the above

In nerve , the magnitude of the action potential overshoot is normally a function of the______________?

A. Magnitude of the stimulus
B. Intracellular potassium concentration
C. extracellular sodium concentration
D. resting membrane potential

Axon hillock is part of the soma of neuron which________?

A. Has dense Nissl grandules
B. Has no Nissl granules
C. Is at commencement of dendrites
D. Is round in shape

Blood brain barriers is absent in all of the following areas except______?

A. Subfornical region
B. Habenuclear trigone
C. Area posterma
D. Neurohypophysis

Epicrritic perception of pain occurs at the level of_________?

A. Thalamus
B. Area 3,1,2
C. Areas 5,7
D. Pulvinar

Intention tremor is a feature of _______?

A. Loss of function of Thalamus
B. Loss of function of Hypothalamus
C. Loss of function of cerebellum
D. Loss of function of Basal ganglia

The most outer covering of nerve fibres is called as_____?

A. Neurolemma
B. Perineurium
C. Axolemma
D. Myelin sheath

Delta waves of Electroencephalogram have frequency of __________?

A. More than 14 cycles per second
B. Between 8 and 13 cycles per second
C. Less than 3.5 cycles per second
D. Between 4 and 7 cycles per second

Sensory receptors for pain are_________?

A. Pacinian corpuscles
B. End organs of Ruffini
C. End bulbs of Krause
D. Free nerve endings

The first physiological response to high environmental temperature is__________?

A. Sweating
B. Vasodilatation
C. Decrease heat production
D. Non- shivering thermogenesis

Function of Merkel’s cells is_______________?

A. Tactile sensation
B. Melanophage
C. Chemoreceptor
D. Proprioception

Copious flow of watery saliva is secreted in response to ________?

A. Parasympathetic stimulation
B. Sympathetic stimulation
C. CNS stimulation
D. sensory stimulation

Intensity of sound is measured in_______?

A. Diopters
B. Daltons
C. Decibels
D. Pounds

Pacinian corpuscles are major receptor for______________?

A. Pressure
B. Pain
C. Touch
D. Temperature

Resting membrane potential of nerve fiber is_______?

A. -70 mv
B. -90 mv
C. -55 mv
D. + 35 mv

Sympathetic stimulation causes ______?

A. Arteriolar constriction
B. Ciliary muscle contraction
C. Sweat secretion
D. All of the above

Gag reflex is mediated by _______ cranial nerve ?

C. X

Satiety center in hypothalamus is regulated by ________________?

A. Gastric dilatation
B. Blood glucose levels
C. Blood insulin levels
D. All of the above

Swallowing center is situated in_______________?

A. MIdbrain
B. Pons
C. Medulla
D. Cerebellum

Wallenberg degeneration is seen in______________?

A. Proximal cut end of nerve with cell body
B. Distal cut end of nerve without cell body
C. Both the free ends of the cut nerve
D. All are true

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2.     Top questions of InterviewClick Here
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4.     Past Questions of Initial TestsClick Here
5.     Best Tips to pass InterviewClick Here

Past Tests of Physiology with Answers 

Find more past questions of Physiology here below: 

First change to occur in the distal segment of cut_____?

A. Myelin degeneration
B. Axonal degeneration
C. Mitosis of schwann cell
D. Sprouting

Neurotransmitter in nigrostrial pathway is______?

A. Dopamine
C. Acetyl choline
D. Nor epinephrine

The term ‘myopia’ refers to _____?

A. Near sightedness
B. Far sightedness
C. Constriction of the pupil
D. Dilation of the pupil

Aphasia is most likely associated with a lesion in_________?

A. Broca’s area
B. Sensory area
C. Primary motor area
D. Visual area

Abdominal visceral pain is transmitted by ________?

A. fibers
B. fibers
C. Parasympathetic fibers
D. Sympathetic fibers

The Sensory receptors serving the stretch reflex are classified as___________?

A. Proprioceptors
B. Nociceptors
C. Exteroceptors
D. Chemo receptors

Unmyelinated fibres differ from myelinated fibers in that they ______?

A. Have increased excitability
B. Have to nodes of Ranvier
C. Have no power of regeneration
D. Have no association of Schwann cells

Tremors are seen in disorder of__________?

A. Basal ganglia
B. Pain pathway
C. Pyramidal tract
D. Parathyroid gland

Which of the following is not true for myelinated nerve fibers______________?

A. Impulse through myelinated fibers is slower than non- myelinated fibers
B. Membrane currents are generated at nodes of Ranvier
C. Saltatory conduction of impulses is seen
D. Local anesthesia is effective only when the nerve is not covered by myelin sheath

Lesions within the basal ganglia produce the following signs except_______________?

A. Hypotonia
B. Tremor
C. Hemiballismus
D. Athetosis

Sensations of pain from teeth and temperature are carried by________?

A. Corticospinal tract
B. Corticobulbar tract
C. Lateral spinothalamic tract
D. Ventral spinothalamic tract

Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers are_________?

A. Somatic only
B. Parasympathetic
C. Sympathetic
D. Cholinergic

Respiratory center is situated in__________?

A. Medulla oblongata
B. Spinal cord
C. Midbrain
D. Hypothalamus

Pain sensation from the lateral extremities is transmitted by________?

A. Spino thalmamic tract
B. Dorsal column
C. Corticospinal tract
D. Spinocerebellar tract

Pain is conducted by_______?

A. A-alpha fibers
B. A-beta fibers
C. A-gamma fibers
D. A-delta fibers

Stimulation of baroreceptors results in________?

A. Increase in heart rate
B. Decreased vagal discharge
C. Increased sympathetic discharge
D. Decrease in blood pressure

2nd heart sound is characterized by all except_______?

A. Due to closure of semilunar valves
B. Is occasionally split
C. Has longer duration than 1st heart sound
D. Marks the onset of diastole

Heart muscle, true are all except________?

A. Act as syncytium
B. Has multiple nuclei
C. Has gap junctions
D. Has branching

Isovolumetric relaxation ends immediately after_________?

A. AV Valve closes
B. When ventricular pressure falls below aortic pressure
C. When ventricular pressure falls below atrial pressure
D. None of the above

Ventricular muscle receives impulses directly from the_______?

A. Purkinje system
B. Bundle of HIS
C. Right and left bundle branches
D. AV node

Distribution of blood flow is mainly regulated by the__________?

A. Arteries
B. Arterioles
C. Capillaries
D. Venules

Effect on force of contraction of heart is_______?

A. Chronotropic effect
B. Dromotropic effect
C. Bathmotropic
D. Ionotropic effect

Cardiac output is maximum to __________?

A. Liver
B. Brain
C. Kidney
D. Heart

Absolute period when whole heart is in diastole is_________?

A. 0.7 seconds
B. 0.3 seconds
C. 0.7 seconds
D. 0.4 seconds

Cardiac cycle duration in man is________?

A. 0.4 seconds
B. 0.8 seconds
C. 1.2 seconds
D. 1.6 seconds

Coronary blood flow is usually predominantly controlled by______?

A. Auto regulation
B. Hormones
C. Parasympathetic impulses
D. Sympathetic impulse

Fastest conducting tissue in human heart _________?

A. AV node
B. SA node
C. Bundle of His
D. Purkinje fibers

Closure of aortic valve occurs before the following event_______?

A. Isovolumetric contraction
B. Isovolumetric relaxation
C. Pre-diastole
D. Pre-systole

Cardiac index is related to ________?

A. cardiac output and body weight
B. Cardiac output and body surface area
C. Cardiac output and work of the heart
D. Stroke volume and pulse rate

Stimulation of barorceptor leads to _______?

A. Increased blood pressure, increased heart rate
B. Decreased B.P , decreased heart rate
C. Increased B.P, decreased heart rate
D. Decreased B.P, increased heart rate

Consider the following statements________?

A. Starling’s law of heart states that increase in force of contraction is directly related to cardiac ouput
B. Staling’s law of heart states that the force of ventricular contraction is directly related to the end diastolic volume
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

Minimum blood pressure is in______?

A. Aorta
B. Arteries
C. Capillaries
D. Venules

The largest function of the total peripheral resistance is due to _______?

A. Venules
B. Arterioles
C. Capillaries
D. Precapillary sphincters

Cardiac output is a measure of________?

A. Peripheral resistance X tissue fluid
B. Peripheral resistance X cardiac rate
C. Blood pressure X cardiac rate
D. Heart rate X blood volume

The ventricular repolarization in ECG is best seen in_______?

A. “P” wave
B. “Q” wave
C. “R” wave
D. “T” wave

Parasympathetic stimulation of heart causes_______?

A. SA node decreases firing
B. Increased AV node excitability
C. Decreased ventricular contraction
D. Tachycardia

The dicrotic notch on the aortic pressure curve is caused by________?

A. Closure of the pulmonary valve
B. Rapid filling of the left ventricle
C. Closure of the aortic valve
D. Contraction of the atria

The function of Carotid body is_______________?

A. Measures the change in Po2 in arterial blood
B. Measures Po2 in venous blood
C. Measures the changed in CO2 in arterial blood
D. Measures the change in CO2 in venous blood

What is common between systemic and pulmonary circulation is________?

A. Volume of the circulation per minute
B. Peripheral vascular resistance
C. Pulse Pressure
D. Total Capacity

The velocity of conduction in the Purkinjie fibers of the heart is___________?

A. 1 to 4 m/sec
B. 5 to 8 m/sec
C. 9 to 12 m/sec
D. More than 12 m/sec

Which of the following increases turbulence in blood flow ?

A. Reynolds number < 2000
B. Decrease in velocity of blood
C. Decrease in density of blood
D. Increase in diameter of blood vessel

Glomerular capillary pressure differ from other capillaries of body in________?

A. Higher filtration pressure
B. Lower filtration pressure
C. Both of the above
D. None

In determining blood pressure by auscultatory method________?

A. The loudest sound is the diastolic pressure
B. Systolic pressure estimation tends to be lower than those make by palpatory method
C. The first sound heard is the systolic pressure
D. The sounds that are heard are generated in heart

The following factors increase the cardiac output except________?

A. Preload
B. After load
C. Heart rate
D. Myocardial contractility

SA node acts as a pacemaker of the heart because of the fact that it_________?

A. is capable of generating impulses
B. Has rich sympathetic innervation
C. Has poor cholinergic innervation
D. Generates impulses at the highest rate

Increase in carotid sinus pressure produces_________?

A. Reflex hyperpnea
B. Reflex Hypercapnia
C. Reflex tachycardia
D. Reflex Hypercapnia

The effects of Adrenaline on heart are all except________?

A. Increases heart rate
B. Decreases myocardial irritability
C. Increases force of contraction
D. Increases oxygen uptake by heart

First heart sound occurs during the period of_________?

A. Isotonic relaxation
B. Isovolumetric relaxation
C. Isovolumetric contraction
D. Isotonic contraction

Cardiac output in L/min divided by heart rate equals__________?

A. Cardiac efficiency
B. Cardiac index
C. Mean stroke volume
D. Mean arterial pressure

Under resting condition the cardiac output is _______ L/ min ?

A. 2.5
B. 4.25
C. 5.25
D. 9.5

Conduction velocity is least in_______?

A. AV node
B. SA node
C. SA node
D. Purkinje fibers

Absolute refractory period in heart________?

A. Lasts till cardiac contraction
B. Longer than refractory period in skeletal muscle
C. A phase of cardiac cycle in which heart cannot be stimulated by any amount of stimulus
D. Corresponds with duration of action potential
E. All of the above

Increased functional demand on the heart produces increased size of the myocardium by _______?

A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypertrophy
C. Fatty infiltration
D. Increased amounts of fibrous connective tissue

Peripheral resistance is maximum in_________?

A. Aorta
B. Artery
C. Arteriole
D. Vein

Starling’s law of the heard_________?

A. Does not operate in the failing heart
B. Does not operate during exercise
C. Explains the increase in cardiac output that occurs when venous return is increased
D. Explains the increase in cardiac output when the sympathetic nerves supplying the heart stimulated

All the heart valves are open during which stage of cardiac cycle _________?

A. Systolic ejection
B. Isovolumetric relaxation
C. Isovolumetric contraction
D. None of the above

Cardiac output is not affected by ________?

A. Heart rate
B. Peripheral resistance
C. Systolic blood pressure
D. Venous return

Stroke output of each ventricle in normal adult is______?

A. 30 ml
B. 130 ml
C. 70 ml
D. 5 liters

Normally, the rate of the heart beat in a human is determined by __________?

A. The bundle of His
B. All cardiac muscle
C. The sinoatrial node
D. The cervical ganglion

The first heart sound is produced by the_____________?

A. Closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves
B. Opening of the aortic and pulmonary valves
C. Closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves
D. Opening of the mitral and tricuspid valves

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