Pharmacology mcqs

Welcome to the page of Pharmacology MCQs where candidate can learn all important questions which usually come in the initial tests of Army, Navy and PAF.

The tests related to Pharmacology surely helps students to pass the initial tests of M-Cadet of Pak Army, Pak Navy or PAF.

Male and Female can join Pak Army through Short Service Regular Commission, in Pak Navy as an M-Cadet and in PAF as a doctor or specialist.

In Pak Army, Male and Female may become direct Captain or Major through Short Service Regular Commission in the different fields like; Anesthesiology (HPG) (Male / Female), Dermatology (Male only), Gynecology (HPG) (Female only), General Medicine (Male/ Female), and Pathology (HPG) (Male / Female).

More included, Psychiatry (Male/ Female), Surgeon (HPG) (Male/ Female), Pediatrics (Male/ Female), Cardiology (Adult), Gastroenterology (Adult), Pulmonology (Adult), Critical Care Med, and Neonatology.

More fields are also available in Pak Army where Pharmacology MCQs helps the students like; Cardiac Surgery (Adult), Neuro Surgery (Adult), Ortho Surgery (Adult), Paeds Surgery (Adult), Thoracic Surgery (Adult), Urology (Adult), Cardiac Anaes (Adult).

In broad perspective, Pharmacology is being considered as the study about chemical agents and how they react biological system of the human being in both natural and synthetic way.

The clear difference between Pharmacology and Pharmacy is that the study of sources and mechanisms of actions of drugs is called Pharmacology whereas, what is being done by the drugs to the human body is called Pharmacodynamics. 

Moreover, Pharmacy is the name of that science or practicing for preparing, formulating and dispensing medicinal drugs.

Those students who have degree in Pharmacology, need no worry because they may become direct Captain or Major in Pak Army, Pak Navy or Pak Air Force as a commissioned Officer.

See also: How to Solve Intelligence Tests?

See below:

1.     Pakistan Army Ranks and SalaryClick Here
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4.     How to Join Pak Army Medical Corps? Click Here
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Part-1 of Pharmacology MCQs 

Quinine is obtained from CINCHONA____?

A. Root
B. Bark
C. Leaves
D. Seed capsule

Which of the following drugs can be given safely to a patient with renal disease ?

A. Phenacetin
B. Tetracycline
C. Aminoglycoside
D. Diazepam

Thyroid storm can be treated by all the following drugs EXCEPT_______?

A. Propylthiouracil
B. Dexamethasone
C. Propranolol
D. Aspirin

Which among the following Not a pharmacological action of opioids_____?

A. Cough suppression
B. Anti-emesis
C. Miosis
D. Truncal rigidity

Aspirine is useful in all the following conditions EXCEPT______?

A. Fever
B. Post myocardial infarction
C. Venous thrombosis
D. Gout

The beneficial effect of drug neostigmine in the treatment of Myasthenia gravis is due to the action______?

A. It is produces more acetylcholine
B. It inhibits the action of cholinesterase
C. It produces more acetycholine receptors
D. It increases the action of cholinesterase

DOPA and 5-Hydroxytryptophan are clinically important because_____?

A. They cross blood Brain Barriers
B. They are acidic precursors of Brain amines
C. They act as neuromodulators
D. They are metabolites of various neurogenic amines

Which among the following is a pure antagonist of opioid receptors ?

A. Natrexone
B. Nalbuphine
C. Butorphanol
D. Pentazonice

Which among the following may be used as a sedatives hypnotic ?

A. Zolmitriptan
B. Zileuton
C. Zolpiden
D. Zalcitabine

An anxiolytic, not interacting with GABA ergic system and used in generalized anxiety is______________?

A. Alprazolam
B. Diazepam
C. Buspiron
D. Phenobarbital

Folic acid deficiency occurs in______________?

A. Aspirin
B. Phenytoin
C. Chloromphenicol
D. Cyclosporine

A Hemophiliac patient has rheumatold arthritis. Which drug might be prescribed to relieve the pain ?

A. Acetaminophen
B. Acetylsalicylic acid
C. Phenylbutazone
D. Naproxen

Activation of which of the following receptors would be expected to decrease anxiety_____?

A. Nicotinic cholinergic receptors
B. Glutamate receptors
C. GABA receptors
D. Glucocorticoid receptors

Which of the following is a muscle relaxant______?

A. Scoline
B. Pentazocine
C. Hyoscin
D. Phenylephrine

Ibuprofen is contraindicated in_____?

A. patients having fever
B. patients having asthma
C. patients having amoebic dysentery
D. Patient having bronchitis

The rate of injection of intravenous Valium is_______?

A. 1 ml / min
B. 2.5 ml / min
C. 1 mg / min
D. 2.5 mg / min

The muscle relaxant effect of succinylcholine lasts for_______?

A. 1 min
B. 2 min
C. 3-5 min
D. 10 min

Aspirin is contraindicated in______?

A. Peptic ulcer
B. Person suffering form chicken pox or small pox
C. Hemorrhage
D. All of the above

Which of the following is a short acting barbiturate ?

A. Diazepam
B. Secobarbital
C. Pentobarbital
D. Phenobarbita

The anti-inflammatory analgesic drug the causes least gastrointestinal symptoms is______?

A. Aspirin
B. Phenyl butazone
C. Paracetamol
D. Indomethacin

Paracetamol is contraindicated in______?

A. Nephritis
B. Chronic hepatitis
C. Bleeding disorders
D. A & B

Which of the following drugs is currently widely used in treating opioid dependent individuals?

A. codeine
B. Methadone
C. Alphaprodine
D. Pentazocine

Birbiturates in pediatrics is______?

A. Contraindicated
B. Low safety
C. Can be used safely
D. Not much use

A patient with grand mal epilepsy would likely be under treatment with______?

A. Meprobamate
B. Pentobarbital
C. Trimethadione
D. Phenytoin

The Ethyl alcohol (Ethanol) is more effective when mixed with water and used as____?

A. 10 to 20 percent
B. 20 to 30 percent
C. 40 to 50 percent
D. 60 to 70 percent

Best and most effective drug to control convulsions in toxicity cases is______?

A. Phenobarbitone
B. Phenytoin
C. Diazepam
D. Carbemezipine

Which of the following drugs causes extra pyramidal symptoms_____?

A. Antibiotics
B. Salicylates
C. Barbiturates
D. Phenothiazines

Phenytoin is associated with______?

A. Folic acid deficiency
B. Alzhiemer’s disease
C. Cushing’s syndrome
D. Vitamin C deficiency

All of the following statements about opioids is correct except_____?

A. Pentazocine and buprinorphine
B. Pentazocine shows withdrawal symptoms in opioid dependent patients
C. Partial agonists are free from classic opioid adverse effects
D. Ethomorphine is similar to pethidine chemically

All of the following decrease skeletal muscle tone by CNS effects except______?

A. D-tubocurarin
B. Diazepam
C. Beclofen
D. Mephensin

Amitryptyline is a____?

A. Antibiotic
B. Sedative
C. Tricyclic antidepressant
D. Diuretic

Thiopentone action is terminated by_____?

A. Excretion
B. Metabolism
C. Redistribution
D. Recycling

Phenothiazines are used to_____?

A. Produce muscle relaxation
B. Alter psychotic behaviour
C. Suppress coughing
D. Produce analgesia

Drug that does not cause sedation______?

A. Buspirone
B. Nitrazepam
C. Zopiclone
D. Diazepam

Drug which is used to control status epilepticus is______?

A. Diazepam
B. Sodium nitroprusside
C. Glyceryl trinitrite
D. Pheno barbital

Prolonged use of aspirin leads to_____?

A. peptic ulcer
B. Bleeding defects
C. Carcinoma
D. A & B

Aspirin causes________?

A. Agranulocytosis
B. Hemolytic anemia
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Hypoprothrombinemia

Clotting time is most like to be prolonged by the administration of_______?

A. Vitamin K
B. Barbiturates
C. Acetominophen
D. Acetyl salicylic acid

Aspirin is used in treatment of Myocardial Infarction_____?

A. It inhibits thromboxanes
B. It stimulates Prostacyclins
C. It is a vasodilator
D. Ithelps in reducing inflammatory aggregate

Antagonist of morphine is_______?

A. Naloxone
B. Nalosphine
C. Nalpuphine
D. Methadine

Which of the following opioids is not given intrathecally ?

A. Remifentanil
B. Morphine
C. Sufentanil
D. Fentanyl

All of the following statements about pain are correct except_______?

A. Analgesia is associated with μ and k receptors
B. Dysphoria is associated with S receptors
C. NSAIDS benefit by preventing prostaglandin synthesis
D. Naloxane is a non-competitive antagonist and irreversibly opposes the opioids

Aspirin is avoided in children with influenza infection because of association______________?

A. Reye’s syndrome
B. Nausea
C. Diarrhoea
D. Acid-base imbalance

The most prominent toxic effect associated with acetominophen use is______?

A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Haemorrhage
C. Hepatic necrosis
D. Gastric Ulceration

An attack of bronchial asthma is most likely to be triggered by______?

A. Aspirin
B. Ibuprufen
C. Diclofenac potassium
D. Mefenamic acid
E. Both A & B

Narcotic overdose can be antagonized by______?

A. Diphenhydramine
B. Atropine
C. Naloxane
D. Nalorphine

Neusea and vomiting that are associated with administration of opioid analgesic is the result of stimulation of the________?

A. Limbic system
B. Emetic system
C. Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)
D. Opioid receptors in G.I.T

Verril’s sign is seen in________?

A. Diazepam administration
B. Digitalis toxicity
C. Paget’s disease
D. Unconscious states

A common side effect associated with all NSAID drugs is_____?

A. Drowsiness
B. Gastric irritation
C. Xerostomia
D. Constipation

A paralyzing dose of succinylcholine initially elicits_______?

A. CNS stimulation
B. Muscle fasciculation
C. CNS depression
D. Decreased salivation

Aspirin produces all of the following effects except_______?

A. Frank gastric bleeding
B. Prolonged prothrombin time
C. Platelet dysfunction
D. Constipation

All are true of diazapenes except______?

A. Benzodiazepam is used in treatment of status epilepticus
B. Benzodiazepam is used in the long term treatment of psychic disorders
C. Clonazeppam is used in the treatment of petitmal epilepsy
D. None of the above

Shortest acting opioid analgesic is_______?

A. Morphine
B. Fentanyl
C. Remifentanil
D. Sufentanil

Aspirine cause______?

A. Increase BT
B. Increase CT
C. Increase PTT
D. Increase APTT

True about use of midazolam over diazepam is sedation in all except ?

A. Less thrombophlebitis due to low solubility in blond
B. More plasma binding and less toxicity
C. More potent than diazepam
D. Binds to benzodiazepine receptors with 3-4 time more avidly

All NSAIDs block cycloxygenase and______?

A. Prostaglandin synthesis
B. Ectoglandin synthesis
C. Preglandin synthesis
D. Costaglandin synthesis

Following analgesic combination should be avoided ?

A. Aspirin and Codeine
B. Paracetamol and Dextropropoxyphene
C. Ibuprofen and Paracetamol
D. Ibuprofen and DIclofenac

Which of the following drug induces parkinsonism ?

A. Chlorpheniramine
B. Chlorpromazine
C. Chloroquine
D. Chlorhexidine

Which one of the following NSAIDs has adverse effects on liver ?

A. Acetaminophen
B. Aspirin
C. Ibuprofen
D. Diclofenac Sodium

Atypical Antipsychotic are all except______?

A. Olanzepine
B. Clozapine
C. Risperidone
D. Thioridazone

Benzodiazepine antagonist is_______?

A. Flumazenil
B. Furazolidone
C. Naloxone
D. Naltrexone

Which one of the following is NOT an ergot alkaloids_______?

A. Bromocriptine
B. Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
C. Ketanserin
D. Methysergide

BEnzodiazepines are true in_______?

A. Produce distortion in sleep more than other sedatives
B. More safe than other sedatives when take in larger amounts
C. After metabolism of other drugs in liver
D. All have metabolically active substrates

Which of the following is true about parasympathetic nervous system ?

A. Ach is transmitter at both pre & post synaptic junction
B. It causes dilatation of skeletal muscles
C. Post ganglionic fibres are longer than pre ganglionic fibres
D. Noradrenalin is the neurotransmitter at post ganglionic junction

Drugs like barbiturates precipitate symptoms of prophyria because_______?

A. They depress ALA synthase
B. They inhibit ALA synthase
C. They induce heme oxygenase
D. They inhibit heme oxygenase

The statement Not true of Selective Cox – 2 inhibitor is______?

A. The analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects identical to that of Non-selective NSAID
B. They do not offer the cardio protective effect
C. Safe in patients with renal insufficiency
D. Fewer incidence of gastrointestinal side effect

Which one of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action ?

A. Atracurium
B. Vecuronium
C. Rocuronium
D. Doxacurium

All are symptoms of opiate withdrawals except______?

A. Diarrhea
B. Lacrimation
C. Mydriasis
D. Excessive speech

Buprenorphine acts by following mechanism______?

A. Mu receptor antagonist
B. Kappa receptor antagonist
C. Mu receptor partial agnoist
D. Kappa receptor partial agonist

A patient with grandmal epilepsy would likely be under treatment with_____?

A. Meprobamate
B. Pentobarbital
C. Trimethadione
D. Phenytoin

Respiratory depression is seen with_____?

A. Tranquilizers
B. Non-barbiturates
C. Synthetic narcotics
D. Antidepressants

The first choice of drug for patitmal seizure is_______?

A. Phentoin sodium
B. Carbamazepine
C. Phenobarbitone
D. None of the above

An untoward effect of that is common to all phenothiazines is______?

A. A marked increase in blood pressure
B. Rigidity and tremor at rest, particularly with prolonged use
C. Suppression of prolacin
D. Nausea

Platelet aggregation in inhibited by all except_______?

A. Indomenthacin
B. Salicylates
C. Dypyradimole
D. Phenobarbitone

Salicylate administration is contraindicated in pregnancy because________?

A. It delay onset of labour
B. Causes pulmonary hypertension of newborn
C. Readily croses placental barrier
D. All of these

Which of the following is a non steroidal anti inflammatory agent with a tendency to produce blood dyscrasias ?

A. Ibuprofen
B. Indomethacin
C. Aspirin
D. B & C

The principle central action of caffeine is on the_______?

A. Cerebral cortex
B. Corpus callosum
C. Hypothalamus
D. Spinal cord

An antiepileptic drug used in petitmal epilepsy is______?

A. Phenobarbitonse
B. Dilantoin sodium
C. Diazepam
D. Ethosuximide

NSAID which undergoes enterohepatic circulation______?

A. Phenylbutazone
B. Piroxicam
C. Aspirin
D. Ibuprofen

Acute Barbiturate poisoning results in______?

A. Renal failure
B. Liver failure
C. Respiratory failure
D. Convulsions

One of the obious consequences of alchol ( ethenol), ingestion in many individual is facial flushing and increased heart rate triggered off by alcohol getting metabolized to______?

A. Formaldehyde
B. Acetaldehyde
C. Propanaldehyde
D. Butanaldehyde

A 50 year old female with end stage renal disease (ESRD) develops pulmonary tuberculosis. Which one of the following drugs should be used in a reduced dose ?

A. Rifampicin
B. Isoniazide
C. Pyrazamide
D. Ethambutol

Carbamazepine is a type of____?

A. Antidepressant
B. Antinflammatory
C. Antibiotic
D. Antiemetic

Morphine a powerful opioid analgesic drug should be avoided in all the following conditions except_____?

A. Left ventricular failure
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Constipation
D. A & C

An attack of migraine can be easily terminated by_____?

A. Acetylcholine
B. Ergotamine
C. Morphine
D. Ibuprofen

One of the benzodiazepines (BDZ) comparatively safe in pregnancy is (Category-B) ?

A. Alprozolam
B. Zolpidem
C. Lorazepam
D. None of the above

Drug which causes gingival hyperplasia______?

A. Nifedipine
B. Erythromycin
C. Cyclosporin
D. Aspirin
E. Both A & C

The intramuscular administration of 0.6 mg of atropine sulphate to a 50 kg adult may produce all of the following effects except________?

A. Bradycardia
B. Decreased salivation
C. Decreased sweating
D. Mydriasis

IV ultrashort acting barbiturate______?

A. Meprobamate
B. Pentobarbitone
C. Thiopentone
D. Phenobarbitone

Aspirin acts on which part of brain ?

A. Substantia gelatinosa
B. Limbic system
C. Medulla
D. Cortex

NSAID’s have adverse effect on______?

A. Bone
B. Kidney
C. Liver
D. Stomach

Which of the following drug is used to counter act the gastric irritation produced by administration of NSAID_____?

A. Roxatidine
B. Pirenzipine
C. Betaxolol
D. Misoprostol

Prolonged use of aspirin causes_____?

A. Hypoprothrombinemia
B. Hyperprothrombinemia
C. Hyprphosphatasia
D. Hypercalcemia

Salicylate overdose in children causes____?

A. Crystalluria
B. Rye’s syndrome
C. Kernicterus
D. None of the above

A patient on 300 mg of aspirin will show all the following except_____?

A. Irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase path way
B. Prolonged bleeding time
C. Inhibition of thromboxane TXA2
D. Inhibition of prostaglandin PGI2

Which of the following anti inflammatory drug is a COX-2 inhibitor______?

A. Aspirin
B. Ketoprofen
C. Rofecoxib
D. Sulidec

Pregnant patient can be safely given________?

A. Tetracycline
B. Paracetamol
C. Metronidazole
D. Barbiturates

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5.     How to join Pak Army as a Civilian? Click Here
6.     How to join PAF as a Civilian? Click Here

Part-2 of Pharmacology MCQs 

Aspirin is contraindicated in________?

B. Angina
C. Peptic ulcer
D. Hypertension

Less gastrointestinal bleed is seen in the following NSAID_______?

A. Meloxicam
B. Naproxen
C. C0X2 specific inhibitors
D. Ibuprofen

Which of the following anti-epileptic agents causes the reversible side-effect of gingival hyperplasia ?

A. Ethosuximide
B. Phenobarbitone
C. Sodium valporate
D. None of the above

Amyl nitrate is most commonly administered ______?

A. Intravenously
B. By inhatation
C. Sub lingually
D. Orally

Which of the following is a nonsteroldad anti inflammatory agent with a tendency to produce blood dyscriasis ?

A. Indomathecin (indocin)
B. Ibuprofen (Motrin)
C. Ketoroloc
D. Aceteminophen

Which of the following is an irreversible side enact resulting from long term administration of phenothiazline antipsychotics_______?

A. Infertility
B. Parkinsonism
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. B & C

Which of the following can be given safely to a patient of congestive heart failure______?

A. Aspirin
B. Paracetamol
C. Diclofenac sodium
D. Ibuprofen

Which of the following is not a contraindication in the therapy with opioids_____?

A. Use in head injury patient
B. use in impaired pulmonary function
C. Use of agonist with mixed agonist-antagonist
D. Use in severe constant pain

Morphine is contraindicated in all of the following except______?

A. Pulmonary oedema
B. Emphysema
C. Bronchial asthma
D. Head injury

Which of the following drugs is least efficacious in the treatment of cemporal lobe epilepsy ?

A. Phenobarbitone
B. Phenytoin sodium
C. Primidone
D. Carbamazepine

Not true about penicillin G is_____?

A. Destroyed by gastric acid
B. Very active against sensitive gram positive cocci
C. Used for treatment of meningococcal meningitis
D. More concentrated in prostatic secretions and intraocular fluids

A child has phocomelia, this impliments his mother had taken which of the following medication during pregnancy______?

A. Tetracycline
B. Thalidomide
C. Warfarin
D. Chloroquine

The drug Amifostine is used in subjects undergoing radiotherapy for cancer as it______?

A. Scavanges free radicals
B. Enhances the production of free radicals
C. Promotes damage of DNA
D. Prevents repair of damaged DNA

Mandibular sublaxation is associated with_______?

A. Prochlorperazine
B. Carbamezapine
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Ciprofloxacin

A biological experiment in which one compares the effects of two preparations by means of common biological response is known a______?

A. Biodegradable
B. Bio-experiment
C. Bio-assay
D. Bio-statement

Which of the following is a mismatch ?

A. Naloxone-Tricyclic antidepressant
B. Warfarin- Oral anticoagulant
C. Herbicide and earth materials – allergies
D. Acetaminophen – anti inflammatory

All of the following are tocolytic except______?

A. Isoxsuprine
B. Natrexam
C. Atosiban
D. Ritodrine

A child is brought with drowsiness, decreased deep tendon reflexes and seizures. On examination the child has a blue line on gums. There is history of constipation. Which will be most appropriate drug that should be used in this child ?

D. Penicillamine

Filgrastin is used for treatment of______?

A. Anemia
B. Neutropenia
C. Malaria
D. Filariasis

Which among the following anti-histamines, is Least likely to cause sedation_____?

A. Promethazine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Hydroxyzine
D. Loratidine

The drug which has an antabusive effect when alcohol is ingested is_______?

A. Penicillin G
B. Clindamycin
C. Metronidazole
D. Doxycycline

Which among the following is a cell cycle specific anti-neoplastic drug ?

A. Cyclophosphamide
B. Doxorubicin
C. Methotrexate
D. Cisplatin

In cirrhoses patients, dose reduction is needed for all the following drugs except_____________?

A. Lorazepam
B. Theophylline
C. Paracetamol
D. Metronidazole

Which statement is true about carbamazepine ?

A. Used in trigeminal neuralgia
B. Carbamazepine is an enzyme inhibitor
C. Can cause megaloblastic anemia
D. It is the drug of choice for status epilepticus

Agents used by local application to control bleeding include all of the following except_____?

A. Trannic acid
B. Gelatin foam
C. Adrenaline
D. Vitamin-K

The following statements about verapamil are true except____?

A. It does not produce reflex tachycardia
B. It is less potent as a coronary vasodilator
C. It is contraindicated in patients with supraventicular tachycardia
D. It can cause constipation

Which of the following is true for carbonic anhydrase inhibitor?

A. It causes excretion of Na & Cl
B. It is used as an adjunct in epilepsy
C. It is very potent
D. It causes metabolic alkalosis

The most common type of epilepsy in children is_____?

A. Grand mal epilepsy
B. Infantile spasm
C. Petit mal
D. None of the above

The most common cause of antibiotic – related diarrhea is_____?

A. H.pylori
B. C.difficile
C. K.pneumoniae
D. Shigella

Blood spills in hospitals are cleaned by_____?

A. Absolute alcohol
B. Quaternary ammonium compound
C. Sodium hypochlorite
D. Iodine compound

Mention the drug causing gynecomastia hirsutism, menstrual disturbance on long-term use_____?

A. Hydrochlorthiazide
B. Amiloride
C. Spironolactone
D. Acetazolamide

H antagonists are effective in the therapy of all the following except______?

A. Common cold
B. Systemic anaphylaxis
C. Motion sickness
D. Parkinsonism

The vulnerable period of pregnancy for the causation of foetal malformation is_____________?

A. 1 – 18 days
B. 19 – 55 days
C. 56 – 85 days
D. II trimester

Which of the following histamine blockers has no effect on muscarinic receptors_____?

A. Diphenydramine
B. Promethazine
C. Terfenadine
D. Pyrilamine

The maximum antiseptic action is seen with which of the following concedntrations of ethanol____?

A. 50%
B. 65%
C. 70%
D. 95%

Nitrates are not used in____?

B. Esophageal spasm
C. Renal colic
D. Cyanide poisoning

Serum sickness is caused by all the following drugs except_____?

A. Aspirin
B. Pencillins
C. Sulfonamides
D. Chloroquin

Potassium permanganate is used for____?

A. Gargling
B. Dinisfect water in wells
C. Irrigating cavities
D. Cleaning surgical instruments

Which of the following drugs to not require a change in their dosage in patients with renal failure_____?

A. Rifampicin
B. Isoniazid
C. Cefotaxime
D. Aminoglycoside

All of the following penetrate the CSF except_______?

A. Dextrose
B. Dilantine
C. Diazepam
D. Dopamine

Which antisialagogue is contraindicated in glaucoma_____?

A. Ephederine
B. Atropine
C. Propranolone
D. Morphine

Side effect of antihistaminic is______?

A. Cough
B. Headache
C. Drowsiness
D. Vertigo

Ovid one iodine is the choice of mouthrinse in cases associated AIDS because_______?

A. It is a topical antimicrobial
B. It is a topical anesthestic
C. Its ability to aid in blood coagulation
D. All of the above

Which of the following drugs cannot reduce the salivary secretions ?

A. Amitriptyline
B. Disopyrmide
C. Atenolol
D. Neostigmine

Which of the following is not true for histamine ?

A. Causes arteriolar dilation
B. causes bronchodialtion
C. Causes pain when injected subcutaneously
D. Is released following injury and in certain allergic responses

Dermatologic manifestation of drug allergy are managed by_____?

A. Lorazepam
B. Pirenzepine
C. Ranitidine
D. Chlorpheniramine

A patient on digoxin should not be given quindine because________?

A. Displaces digoxine from its tissue binding sites
B. Displaces digoxin from its protein binding sites
C. Decrease the renal clearance of digoxin
D. Decreases the plasma potassium level

A side effect of an antithyroid drug is_______?

A. Hypothyroidism
B. Obesity
C. Hypotension
D. Tremors

All of the following are true except_____?

A. A special application of dantrolene is used to treat malignant hyperthermia
B. Interferons have a role in immunology of cancer
C. Thalidomide is used for the treatment of leprosy
D. Allopurinol is a derivative of 8-mercaptopurine

Teratogenicity is______?

A. Carcinoma forming tendency
B. Fetal malformation
C. Intolerance to a drug
D. Drug dependence

Which of the following is not a potassium sparing diuretic_____?

A. Spironolactone
B. Bumetainde
C. Triamtrence
D. Amelioride

Gastric secretion has been shown to be most effectively reduced with the use of______?

A. H1 histamine receptor antagonist
B. H2 histamine receptor antagonist
C. Adrenal steroids
D. Anticholinergic

Which of the following can cause seizure ?

A. Tramadol
B. Isoniazid
C. Levocetrizine
D. Tacrolimus

Toxic optic neuropathy can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT______?

A. Ethambutol
B. Ethylene glycol
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Tetracycline

Toxic optic neuropathy can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT______?

A. Ethambutol
B. Ethylene glycol
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Tetracycline

Untrue about vitamin D is______?

A. UV light helps in formation
B. Increased parathyroid hormone secretion is seen in renal failure
C. Hydroxylation of 25-hydroxycholecalcitenol occurs in kidney
D. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol is used in treatment of renal failure

Progestin compound that does not alter lipid profile is_____?

A. Medroxyprogesterone
B. Norethindrone
C. Gestodene
D. Levonorgestrel

Drug injury may be caused by therapeutic drugs or_____?

A. Carcinogens
B. Allergens
C. Nontherapeutic agents
D. All of the above

Imatinib acts on____?

A. Alpha TNF receptors
B. IL-2 receptors
C. Tyrosin Kinase receptors
D. Inhibits Phosphodiesterase

Which of the following is used in the prophylaxis of migraine ?

A. Carbamazepine
B. Topiramate
C. Ethosuxamide
D. Phenobarbitone

Which of the following is NOT a systemic effect of corticosteroid ?

A. Increase in IL-1
B. Increase in total amount of circulatory neutrophils
C. Anti-inflammatory effect is increased
D. Inhibit phospholipase A2

Sildenafil is inhibitor of______?

C. PDE-5

Which of the following is a leukotriene antagonist ?

A. Montelukast
B. Zileuton
C. Nedocromil
D. Misopristol

Which of the following statements about Azoles is false ?

A. They are fungistatic
B. They are hepatotoxic
C. Resistance to the drug is common
D. They affect the metabolism of drugs such as cyclosporine necessitating an increasing in dosage

Which drug is present in ledermix paste ?

A. Doxycycline
B. Demeclocyline
C. Minocycline
D. Tetracycline

Which drug is not acetylated ?

A. Metaclopramide
C. Dapsone
D. Hydralazine

Finasteride is a ?

A. 5 alpha reductase inhibitor
B. PDE inhibitor
C. Alpha blocker
D. Androgen receptor blocker

Therapeutic uses of calcium salts include the following except____?

A. Osteoporosis
B. Disorders of coagulation
C. Laryngospasm
D. Extreme hyper-Kalemia

Use of morphine is contraindicated in the following conditions except______?

A. Head injury
B. Acute myocardial infarcation
C. Acute abdominal pain before diagnosis
D. Bronchial asthma

Which of the following drugs is used in the morning sickness_____?

A. Hyoscine
B. Atropine
C. Adrenalin
D. Chlorpromazine

A factor with a mucopoly saccaride, present in liver, presenting in platelet aggregation is____?

A. Plasmin
B. Acetylsalicylic acid
C. Heparin
D. Prothrombin

Digitalis induced automaticity is enhanced by____?

A. High K+ levels
B. High Ca2+ levels
C. High Na+ levels
D. Low K+ levels

Which of the following is not a Glycoside ?

A. Digoxin
B. Digitoxin
C. Ergotoxine
D. Gitoxin

Drugs that does not cross Blood Brain Barrier______?

A. Atropine
B. Neostigmine
C. Physostigmine
D. Scopolamine

Which of the following drugs will not produce allergic reactions ?

A. Pencillins
B. Sulfonamides
C. Certrizine
D. Cephalosporins

Drugs used in cysticercosis____?

A. Prazequantal
B. Metronidazole
C. Niclosamide
D. Pyrantel

Which of the following exerts its major systemic pharmacological action when administered orally____?

A. Insulin
B. Chloral hydrate
C. Procaine
D. Streptomycin

Which of the following second generation anti-histaminics is used topically_____?

A. Acrivastine
B. Terfenadine
C. Lovocabastine
D. Cetrizine

Tannic acid is used in the following conditions except____?

A. Bleeding gums
B. Alkaloidal poisoning
C. Toothache
D. Bleeding piles

Which drug may be administered even when the patient is on alcoholic beverages ?

A. Animal charcoal
B. Glibenclamide
C. Chloral hydrate
D. Cefixime

In which of the following condition thalidomide may be used______?

A. Myocardial infarction
B. Epilepsy
C. Wernicke’s ecephalo pathy
D. Erythema nodosum leprosum

A patient has had an allergic reaction with Urticarlia and wheezing. The drug of choice will be_____?

A. Epinephrine
B. Hydrocortisone
C. Succinylcholine
D. All of the above

A patient is talking terfenadine for cold and comes for tooth extraction. What tablet you have given which makes him suffer from cardiac arrhythmia____?

A. Erythromycin
B. Doxycycline
C. Penicillin
D. Streptomycin

Xerostomia is treated with______?

A. Neostigmine
B. Ephedrine
C. Scopalamine
D. Atropine

Action of tannic acid is______?

A. Blood coagulant
B. Astrigent
C. Styptic
D. All of the following

All of the following drugs cause dryness of mouth except______?

A. Atropine
B. Chlorpheniramine
C. Imipramine
D. Neostigmine

Adrenaline can be given in all of the following situations except______?

A. Asthma
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Shock
D. Anaphylaxis

Which of the following drug is given for treating hypertensive crisis______?

A. NIfedipine
B. Isosobide dinitrate
C. Verapamil
D. Digoxin

The choice of treatment in anaphylactic shock is_______?

A. Corticosteroids
B. Adrenaline
C. Glucose 1.V
D. Saline 1.V

The antiseptic recommended for application in oral mucosa is____?

A. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Mebromine
C. Iodine
D. None of the above

When given together, the ability of two drugs to produce a response greater than either administered alone is termed as____?

A. Cumulation
B. Induction
C. Synergism
D. Antagonism

The drug which has an affinity for a receptor site and produces the intrinsic activity of the receptor cell or enzyme system is known as_____?

A. An agonist
B. A non competitive antagonist
C. A physiologic antagonist
D. A competitive antagonist

1st past metabolism effect can be observed with which route_______?

A. Oral
B. Inhalation
C. Rectal
D. Parental

Patients tend to exhibit a greater than normal response drugs in each of the following conditions except______?

A. Congestive cardiac failure
B. Hepartic cirrhossis
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Hypolbuminaemia

General anaesthetic most likely to cause bronchodilation is______?

A. Thiopentone
B. Ketamine
C. Propofol
D. Fentanyl

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Part-3 of Pharmacology MCQs 

Centrineuraxial (spinaland epidural) anaesthesia is not contraindicated in_____?

A. Platalets <80,000
B. Patient on aspirin
C. Patient on oral anticoagulants
D. Raised intracranial pressure

After I.V administration of which of the following anesthetic agent, there is rapid recovery and less headedness ?

A. Propofol
B. Diazepam
C. Droperidol
D. Midazolam

In which of the following stage general anesthesia surgery is done______?

A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III plane 2
D. Stage III plane 3

Which of the following inhalational agents is the induction agent of choice in children_____?

A. Methoxyflurane
B. Sevoflurane
C. Desflurane
D. Isoflurane

Hallucinations are seen after ________ anesthesia?

A. Ketamine
B. Thiopentone
C. Tentanyl
D. Nitrous oxide

Naturally occurring local anaesthetic_______?

A. Cocaine
B. Procaine
C. Lignocaine
D. None of the above

All of the following are vasodilators except_____?

A. Cocaine
B. Etomidate
C. Cyclopropane
D. Procaine

The drug combination which produces Neuroleptanalgesia is_____?

A. Daroperidol + Fentanyl
B. Deroperidol + Ketamine
C. Droperiodl + Ether
D. Droperiodl + Thiopental sodium + Nitrous oxide

The dentist who first used Nitrous oxide for the abolition of pain due to dental extraction was______?

A. Harpes David
B. Harvey william
C. Horace wells
D. Hunter John

Which of the following anesthetic drugs produces powerful stimulation of the cerebral cortex_____?

A. Cocaine
B. Procaine
C. Lidocaine
D. Tetracaine

Ketamine is a______?

A. Short general anesthetic agent
B. Local anesthetic agent
C. Antidepressive agent
D. Hypnotic agent

Problems associated with nitrous oxide anaesthesia is______?

A. Behavioral problem
B. Sensitizes the heart to adrenaline
C. Prolonged difficult induction
D. Tachycardia and or arrhythmias

Cardiac arrhythmias are most commonly seen during administration of_____?

A. Thiopental
B. Halothane
C. Ethyl Ether
D. Nitrous oxide

Lidocaine produces its antiarrhythmic effects by_____?

A. Increasing A-V conduction
B. Decreasing cardiac excitability
C. Increasing cardiac conduction velocity
D. Increasing spontaneous pacemaker activity

A patient, without prior medication, breathes a gas mixture consisting of 50 percent nitrous oxide and 50 percent oxygen by volume. Which of the following effects would be expected______?

A. Analgesia
B. Excitation
C. Surgical anesthesia
D. Respiratory arrest

Chloroxylenol has______?

A. Local anesthetic property
B. Local anesthetic and antiseptic action
C. Antiseptic action
D. Antibiotic action

Dissociative Sedation and analgesia described by Robert and Rosebaum in 1971 is______?

A. 5 to 20% N20
B. 20 to 30% N20
C. 30 to 50% N20
D. 50 to 70% N20

Which of the following cannot be used as a surface local anaesthetics ?

A. Procaine
B. Tetracaine
C. Lidocaine
D. Benzocaine

About articaine, all are true except_____?

A. Plasma half-life is 90 min
B. Is amide which is metabolized in liver
C. Mandibular infiltration is more effective than nerve block in mandibular molar teeth
D. More breaks down causes more toxicity

Nitrous oxide is_____?

A. A good analgesic but a poor anesthetic
B. A good anesthetic but a poor analgesic
C. A good analgesic and a good anesthetic
D. A poor analgesic and a poor anesthetic

Which among the following is Not used for surface anesthesia ?

A. Lignocaine
B. Procaine
C. Tetracaine
D. Benzocaine

All of the following causes increase in heart rate except______?

A. Halothane
B. Isoflurane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Desflurane

Which one of the following agents sensitises the myocardium to catechlomines___?

A. Isoflurane
B. Ether
C. Halothane
D. Proplofol

Side of action of muscle selanant is____?

A. Myoneural junction
B. Central
C. Ascending reticular
D. Red nucleus activating system

In the second stage of anesthesia the pupil is______?

A. Constricted
B. Partially dilated
C. Normal in size
D. Totally dilated

Local anaesthetics act by inhibiting_____?

A. Motor fibers only
B. Motor and sensory fibres
C. Only sensory fibres
D. None of the above

The drug not belonging to amide group______?

A. Procaine
B. Xylocaine
C. Lignocaine
D. Bupivacaine

The most important property in determining the induction of a general anaesthetic agent is_____?

A. Alveolar exchange
B. Pulmonary ventilation
C. Solubility of anaesthetic in blood
D. solubility of anaesthetic in tissue

A dentist who first used ether as a general antithetic was_____?

A. Martin
B. Morton
C. Morrison
D. Murray

Methemoglobinemia is a complication following the administration of_____?

A. Lignocaine
B. Benzacaine
C. Prilocaine
D. Procaine

Which produces dissociative anaesthesia_____?

A. Propanidid
B. Theiopentone sodium
C. Fentany droperodol
D. Ketamine

The organ most resistant to GA is_____?

A. Spinal Cord
B. Medulla oblonagata
C. Medullary cortex
D. Cerebrum

Which factor of the following contributes to short duration of anesthetic action of single dose thiopental______?

A. Rapid biotransformation
B. Rapid accumulation in body fat
C. High lipid solubility
D. Ability to enter and leave brain tissue every rapidly

Rapid onset of inhalational GA depends on____?

A. Blood solubility
B. Cerebral blood flow
C. Partial pressure of GA
D. All of the above

Nitrous oxide is carried in the blood stream by_______?

A. Haemoglobin
B. White blood cells
C. Red Blood cells
D. Serum

Relative contraindications for the administration of Ketamine hydrochioride include all of the following EXCEPT ?

A. Age < 5 years
B. History of epilepsy
C. Raised intracranial tension
D. Recent anterior myocardial infarction

All of the following are inhalational anesthetic agents except___?

A. Halothane
B. Ketamine
C. Enflurane
D. Isoflurane

During administration of NSAIDs in children, the most important of dose administration is_____?

A. Weight of the child
B. Age of child
C. Nature of the drug
D. Chronicity of pain

Which is a prodrug ?

A. Enalapril
B. clonidine
C. Salmeterol
D. Acetazolamide

Complete drug elimination occurs after how many hours, if t½ is 4 hrs_____?

A. 12 hrs
B. 20 hrs
C. 25 hrs
D. 30 hrs

Immune mediated qualitative drug intolerance is called_____?

A. Super sensitivity
B. Idiosyncrasy
C. Hyper sensitivity
D. Hyper acidity

Following drug which undergo most of its metabolism presystemically____?

A. Salbutamol
B. Verapamil
C. Propranolol
D. Paracetamol

I.V anesthesia is_______?

A. Propofol
B. Sevoflurane
C. Flumazanil
D. Naloxane

Drug which crosses placental barrier is_____?

A. phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Corticosteroids
D. All of the above

What is the advantage of sublingual route of administration of drugs_____?

A. prevents or bypasses first pass effects
B. Easy to administer
C. Lipid soluble
D. Can be spitted out with signs of toxicity

Elimination after 4 half lives in first order kinetics is____?

A. 84%
B. 93%
C. 80.5%
D. 4.75%

Majority of drugs are transported across the membrane by_____?

A. Passive diffusion
B. Active transport
C. Facilitated trasnsport
D. Filtration

IF patient suffered from exaggerated effect of pharmacological effect_____?

A. Idosyncrasy
B. Toxicity
C. Side effect
D. None of the above

A prodrug is_____?

A. The proto type member of a class of drugs
B. The oldest member of a class of drugs
C. An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite
D. A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually released in the direction

Plasma concentration of drug at time 0 is 96g/mL. if t1/2 is 2 hours concentration is plasma at 10 hours will be_____?

A. 48
B. 24
C. 12
D. 3

Km value indicates_______?

A. Purity of Enzyme
B. Physiological role
C. Half life enzymes drug complex
D. Affinity

The ratio of the median lethal dose of the median effective dose is the_____________?

A. Morbidity index
B. Moratality index
C. Anesthetic ratio
D. Therapeutic index

Therapetic index indicates_______?

A. Drug toxicty
B. Drug potency
C. Drug safety
D. Drug’s Lethal effect

Teratogenicity results when drugs are given during____?

A. First trimester
B. Second trimester
C. Third trimester
D. Soon after birth

The following statements are true about intravenous route of drug administration EXCEPT_____?

A. It is useful in emergencies
B. Aseptic precautions are required
C. Bioavailability is 100%
D. Suspensions can be administered

The dose of a drug required to produce a specified effect in 50% of the population is_____?

A. Ld50
B. Td50
C. Md50
D. Ed50

American society of anesthesiologists physical status classification system, P2 is a is a patient who_______?

A. Is healthy
B. With mild systemic disease
C. With severe systemic disease
D. None of the above

A drug A & B compared, all are true except______?

A. 1 mg of A causes same effect of 3 mg of B, so A is more potent
B. 1 mg of A cause effect not even caused by maximum tolerated dose of B, so drug A is more efficacious
C. 1 mg of A cause effect not caused by 1 mg of B so A is more efficacious
D. Efficacy is not dose dependent

According to American society of Anesthetists, physical status scale Class III would be____?

A. A normal healthy individual
B. A patient with mild systemic disease
C. A patient with severe systemic disease that it not in capacitating
D. None of the above

Drug binds to activate the receptor is same fashion, which directly or indirectly brings effect, is_______?

A. Inverse agonist
B. Antagonist
C. Agonist
D. Partial agonist

When a drug creates an effect that is unpredictable and unique it is termed as_____?

A. Side effect
B. Toxicity effect
C. Idiosyncratic effect
D. Drug on Drug effect

Drugs exhibiting first pass metabolism are all EXCEPT one_____?

A. Morphine
B. Nitroglycerine
C. Propranolol
D. Salicylates

Loading dose depends on_______?

A. Volume of distribution
B. Clearance
C. Rate of administration
D. Half life

All the following increases drug metabolism by activating cytochrome enzyme, EXCEPT______?

A. Tetracycline
B. Cimetidine
C. Rifampicin
D. Phenobarbitone

For Arsenic poisoning Antidote is____?

A. Penicillamine
B. E.D.T.A
C. Desferrixamine
D. B.A.L

Intramuscular route is precluded during the medication of_______?

A. Anti-hypertensives
B. Anti-diabetics
C. Anticoagulants
D. Anti-fibrinolytics

Drug efficacy refers to_______?

A. Range of disease in which the drug beneficial
B. Maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug
C. The therapeutic does range of the drug
D. The therapeutic index of the drug

All of the following statements regarding biovailability of a drug are true except____?

A. It is the proportion (fraction) of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation
B. Biovailability of an orally administered drug can be calculated by comparing the area under cure (o-a) after oral and intravenous (IV) administration
C. Low oral biovailability always and necessarily mean poor absorption
D. Biovailability can be determined from plasma concentration or urinary excretion data

Combination of ampicillin and gentamicin is an example of______?

A. Indifference
B. Synergy
C. Antagonism
D. Bacterial symbiosis

Which drugs had high first pass effect_____?

A. Amiodarone
B. Phenytoin
C. Verapamil
D. Disorpyamide

Neuro adaptation to drug is same as_____?

A. Physical dependence
B. Psychological dependence
C. Addiction
D. Habituation

Idiosyncracy is known as to have______?

A. Genetic component
B. Psychological component
C. Psysiological component
D. Nutritional component

Zero order kinetics is seen with______?

A. Phenytoin
B. Phenabarbtion
C. Erythromycin
D. Digoxin

Drugs showing zero order kinetics of elimination_____?

A. Are more common than first order kinetics
B. Decrease in concentration exponentially with time
C. Have a half – life independent of dose
D. Show a plot of drug concentration versus time that is linear

Therapeutic index is______?

A. LD 100/Ed100
B. ED 100/LD 100
C. LD 50/ED500
D. ED50/LD50

Allergic reactions depends on all except_____?

A. previous exposure to the drug
B. Dosage of the drug received
C. Pharmacological action of the drug
D. Antigen antibody reaction

When allergic manifestations occur pursuant to use of antimicrobial agents, what of the following is seen_____?

A. Skin eruptions
B. Angioneurotic edema
C. Sialorrhea
D. Serum imbalance
E. Both A & B

Hepatic first pass metabolism is important in______?

A. Drugs given IM
B. Drugs taken orally
C. Drugs given IV
D. None of the above

Secretory immunoglobulin is_____?

A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgE

The phase I reactions of drug metabolism include The following except_______?

A. Hydolysis
B. Reduction
C. Oxidation
D. Conjugation

Which is not antiemetic ?

A. Domperidone
B. Phenazocine
C. Cyclizine
D. Ondanestron

B- blocker with additional a-blocking property is______?

A. Propranolol
B. Timolol
C. Metoprolol
D. Labetalol

All the following drugs reduced the gastric acid secretion EXCEPT_____?

A. Ranitidine
B. Sucralfate
C. Misoprostal
D. Pantoprazole

Drug not requiring dose adjustment in renal disease is_____?

A. Aminoglycoside
B. Vancomycin
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. Metronidazole

All of the given drugs may be useful in acute exacerbation of bronchial asthma EXCEPT____?

A. Cromolyn sodium
B. Hydrocortisone
C. Salbutamol
D. Ipratropium

All of the following are predominant arteriolar dilators except______?

A. Sodium Nitro prusside
B. Hydrallazine
C. Nifedipine
D. Nitrates

Which one of the following drugs has been shown to offer protection from gastric aspiration syndrome in a patient with symptoms of reflex ?

A. Ondansetron
B. Metoclopramide
C. Sodium citrate
D. Atropine

Salbutamol is used in_____?

A. Cardiac asthma
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Pulmanray oedema
D. Cor pulmonale

One of the following is not an antiemetic_____?

A. Chlorpromazine
B. Digitoxin
C. Metaclopromide
D. Scopolamine

INFLIXIMAB (systemic) is used in____?

A. Crohn’s disease (treatment)
B. To reduce the number of draining enterocutaneous fistula(s) in patients with fistulizing crohn’s disease
C. Rheumatoid arthritis (treatment)
D. All of the above

All the following about antiemetic drugs are correct except______?

A. Domperidone blocks the D2 receptors in CTZ and upper gut
B. Domperidone causes Dystonia
C. Ondastran acts on selective 5 -HT3 receptors
D. Ondastran may cause vomiting by effecting the cytotoxic antige receptors

Which one of the following drugs is not contraindicated in bronchial asthma ?

A. Morphine
B. Propanolol
C. Stropine
D. Nitroglycerine

Which of the following sympathominetic agents is the most bronchodilator_____?

A. Amphetamine
B. Nor epinephrine
C. Isoproterenol
D. Phenylephrine

Beta blockers are contraindicated in____?

A. Angina pectoris
B. Cardiac arrhythmia
C. Cardiac failure
D. Myocardial infarction

Action of Nitroglycerin is______?

A. Direct action on smooth muscle
B. Slows SA node conductivity
C. Blocks arrhythmia
D. Increases perfusion to heart

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Part-4 of Pharmacology MCQs 

Which of the following is not caused by Frusemide______?

A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperuricemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hyponatremia

Heroin, an addict drug contains_______?

B. Acetyl morphine
C. Pentazocine
D. Propoxyphene

Diuretics cause loss of_______?

A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Potassium
D. Iron

Which of the following is not true about ACE inhibitors ?

A. Used in asthma
B. Increase quality of life
C. Postural hypotension is seen
D. Na level decrease

A young lady talking rifampicin and OCP together become pregnant, most probable cause is______?

A. Rifampicin causes hepatic enzyme induction and increase metabolism of OCP’s
B. Decreased absorption of OCP’s
C. Obstruction of fallopian tubes
D. Increase excretion of OCP’s

Which of the following statements regarding nitroglycerin is true ?

A. The effect is more pronounced in venous
B. High membrane penetrability
C. Poorly suited for oral administration
D. All of the above

About heparin true is_____?

A. Mixture of sulphated polypeptide
B. Known to cause idiopathic thrombocytosis
C. Half-life is 90 min
D. Decrease action of prothrombin III

Which of the following is not an antimigraine agent?

A. Flunarizine
B. Divalprox sodium
C. Zonisamide
D. Propanolol

Which of the following is a protective drug in the management of gastric and duodenal ulcers ?

A. H2 antihistamines
C. Famotidine
D. Carbenoxolone

Which one of the anti hypertensives is contraindicated in pregnancy ?

A. Hydralazine
B. a-Methldopa
C. Nifedipine
D. Enlapril

Which one is not converted to an active metabolite ?

A. Quinapril
B. Fosinopril
C. Benzopril
D. Lisinopril

All of the given drugs are positive inotropes EXCEPT______?

A. Dopamine
B. dobutamine
C. Digoxin
D. Doxepin

Ipratropium bromide is used for______?

A. Renal colic
B. Organophosphorus poisoning
C. Bronchial asthma
D. miosis

Which one of the following is Not true of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor____________?

A. May cause hyperkalaemia in diabetic patients
B. Contraindicated in pregnancy
C. Contraindicated in diabetic nephropathy
D. NSAIDs may impair its hypotensive effect

Long acting beta – 2 agonist ?

A. Albuterol
B. Salmeterol
C. Pirlbuterol
D. Orciprenaline

Which one of the following drugs is most commonly employed in an attack of angina pectoris?

A. Sodium nitrate
B. Epinephrine
C. Nitroglycerina
D. Isosorbide dinitrate

Following inhibits Cytochrome P450_____?

A. Cimetidine
B. Famotidine
C. Ranitidine
D. All of the above

Which of the following is an ACE inhibitor ?

A. Saralosin
B. Diltiazem
C. Coptopril
D. Spirino lactone

Omeprazol is used in the treatment of_______?

A. Peptic Ulcer
B. Amoebiasis
C. Malaria
D. cholera

Doalin pectrose is_____?

A. Mummifying agent
B. Anticoagulant
C. Counter irritant
D. Anti diarroheal

Omeprazole is a_______?

A. Antihistamine
B. Proton pump inhibitor
C. Ulcer protective
D. Ulcer healing drug

Each of the following is correct for the treatment of Diarrhoea except______?

A. Kaolin has marginal therapeutic effect
B. Opioids delay the passage of gut contents by decreasing peristalsis and increasing intestinal segmentation
C. Loperamide had high abuse potential
D. Diphenoxylate may cause respiratory depression on administration

Magnesium and Aluminium are added in Antacid because_____?

A. Mg Causes constipation, Al causes diarrhoea
B. Mg Causes Diarrhoea, Al Causes Constipation
C. Mg act as buffering agent and Al antagonize its action
D. Both increase gastric motility

Bronchospasm can be precipitated by_____?

A. Adrenaline
B. propranolol
C. Atropine
D. Salbutamol

Which of the following is antiasthmatic______?

A. Histamine
B. Salbutamol
C. Acetylcholine
D. Serotonin

Beta2 adrenergic receptor stimulating drugs are used in_______?

A. Bronchial asthma
B. cardiac asthma
C. Hypertension
D. Angina pectrosis

Blockers are used in all except_____?

A. Phenochyromocytoma
B. Migraine
C. Thyrotoxcosis
D. Secondary shock

Bradycardia is most commonly treated with which of the following drugs______?

A. Epinephrine
B. Atropine
C. A diuretic
D. A potent vasadilatior

Which of the following antihypertensive agents in most likely to cause an exaggerated response to an injected catecholamine_______?

A. Propranolol
B. Hydralazine
C. A thiazide diuretic
D. Gauanethidine

All of the following drugs are useful in treatment of hypertension except_____?

A. Ephedrine
B. Reserpine
C. Methyldopa
D. Thiazole diuretics

Isosorbide 5 – mononitrate is preferred because______?

A. Less tolerance develops
B. Sublingual absorption is better
C. Longer duration of action
D. Direct coronary vasodilatory action is more

Alpha blocker used as anti hypertensive agent_______?

A. Alpha methyl DOPA
B. Prazosin
C. Clonidine
D. Propranolol

Hypokalemia is seen in therapy with______?

A. Digitalis
B. Ibuprufen
C. Corticosteroids
D. Diazepam

The following drugs are useful in hypertension except_______?

A. Calcium channel blockers
B. Alpha methyl dopa
C. Beta blockers
D. Pentoxifyline

The potent anti arrhythmic drug which has little negative ionotropic effect valuable in patients with poor left ventricular function_____________?

A. Amlodipine
B. Bidoprolo
C. Amiodarnone
D. Digoxin

Quindine is used to treat______?

A. Hypertension
B. Angina pectoris
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. Congestive heart failure

Which of the following cardiac depressants is contraindicated in a patient with cardiac arrhythmia_____?

A. Lidocaine
B. Quinidine
C. Phenytoin
D. Propranolol

Morphine is a_______?

A. Sedative
B. Alkaloid
C. Diuretic
D. Anti hypertensive
E. Both A & B

The mechanism of action of sodium nitroprusside is_____?

A. Increases cAMP
B. Direct Vasodilator
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. Block the sympathetic flow at hypothalamus

Mechanism of action of nifidipine is_____________?

A. It has a prominent smooth muscle relaxant action causes arteolar dilation leading to fall in blood pressure
B. Nifidipine depresses the SA node thus decreasing mycocoardial excitability
C. Mainly depression of A-V conduction
D. Decreased cardiac output thus decreasing load on myocardium

Drug chemically related to penicillins is_____?

A. Tetracycline
B. Sulphonamide
C. Cephalosporin
D. Lincemycin

The drug for choice for treatment of infection involving non-penicillinase producing staphylococcus is_______?

A. Ampicillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Penicilling G
D. Methicillin sodium

The drug for choice for treatment of infection involving non-penicillinase producing staphylococcus is______?

A. Ampicillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Penicilling G
D. Methicillin sodium

The oropharyngeal and oesophageal candidiasis following long-term therapy with a broad spectrum antibiotic can be best treated with_______?

A. Griseofulvin
B. Amphotericin
C. Fluconazole
D. Sulfonates

Antibiotic that interferes with DNA function is________?

A. Metronidazole
B. Nystatin
C. Tetracycline
D. Sulphonamides

Which antibiotic is effective against pseudomonas and indole +ve proteus ?

A. Methicillin
B. Carbenicillin
C. Lincomycin
D. Oxacillin

A distinict advantage that tetracyclines have over penicillins is that tetracyclines______?

A. Have no side effects
B. Do not cause superinfections
C. Are safer to use during pregnancy
D. Have a wider range of antibacterial activity

Which of the following antibiotics is most frequently associated with pseudomembranous colitis ?

A. Ampicillin
B. Penicillin
C. Clindamycin
D. Cephalosporin

Prolonged administration of streptomycin may result in damage to the______?

A. Optic nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Auditory nerve
D. Trigeminal nerve

A patient taking which of the following drug should not eat cheese, etc_____?

A. Tetracycline
B. Amoxycillin
C. Doxycycline
D. Triamterene

The mechanism of action of chloramphenicol is inhibition of synthesis of______?

A. Cell wall
B. Cell membrane
C. Protein

Granesetron, the antiemetic properties because of______?

A. Dopaminergic receptor – blocking actions
B. Gabamimetic actions
C. Gaba-inhibitory actions
D. Serotonin receptor – blocking action

When broad spectrum antibiotics are administered with coumarin anticoagulants, the anticoagulant action may be______?

A. Reduced because of enhanced hepatic drug metabolism
B. Reduced because of increased protein binding
C. Increased because of reduction of vitamin sources
D. Increase because of decrease renal excretion of the anticoagulant

Peripheral neuritis is a complication of______?

A. Isoniazid
B. Ethambutol
C. Rifampicin
D. Pirazinamide

A patient suffering from syphilis is given pencillin He may develop______?

  1. Cholestatic Jaundice
    B. Grey Syndrome
    C. Fanconi Syndrome
    D. Jarish – Herxheimer reaction

A child with permanently stained teeth reports, He was most probably administered___?

A. Disphenyl hydantoin
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Digoxin
D. Doxycycline

Fluconazole is used for the treatment of______?

A. Pemphigus
B. Herpes simplex
C. Candidiasis
D. Syphilis

Which of the following penicillins can be given by IV route ?

A. Benzathine
B. Procaine
C. Crystalline
D. Benzathamine

Which drug causes photosensitivity_______?

A. Tetracycline
B. Aminoglycoside
C. Penicillin
D. Cephalosporin

Concurrent administration of tetracyclines is most likely to impair the action of_______?

A. Lincomycin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Erythromycin
D. Penicillin

Penicillin is effective against____?

A. Neisseria meningitis
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Treponema Pallidum
D. All of the above

Which of the following drugs in likely to damage the eighth cranial nerve when administered for a long period of time ?

A. Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid
C. Rifampicin
D. Streptomycin

True about aminoglycoside is all except_______?

A. Are bacteriostatic
B. Distributed only extracellularly
C. Excreted unchanged in urine
D. Teratogenic

Which of the following is a first generation oral cephalosporin_______?

A. Cephapirin
B. Cefadroxil
C. Cefaclor
D. Cefixime

Best treatment of candidiasis of_____?

A. Mycostatin
B. Amphoterin
C. Antibiotics
D. None of the above

Cyclosporin is used an______?

A. Anticancer drug
B. Antibiotic
C. Antiarrythmic
D. Immunosuppresant

Which of the following is a 4th generation cephalosporin_____?

A. Ceftrioxone
B. Cefaclor
C. Cefepime
D. Cefuroxime


A. Has no side-effects
B. Is used in management of ANUG
C. Is mainly concentrated in saliva
D. Is active against gram-positive aerobes

Cross resistance of isoniazid is seen with____?

A. Rifampicin
B. Ethionamide
C. Cycloserine
D. Ethambutol

The oral microblal fiora of a patient on prolonged broad spectrume antibiotic therapy is predominantly______?

A. Anaerobic
B. Gram positive organism
C. Gram negative organisms
D. Yeast and fungi

True about amoxycillin in comparison to ampicillin is_______?

A. Higher oral biovailability
B. Lower oral biovailability
C. Equal oral biovailability
D. Can be given Parenterally

An aminoglycoside that is often combined with polymyxin and bacitracin for the treatment of topical infection is______?

A. Gentamycin
B. Tetracycline
C. Aztreonam
D. Neomycin

Povidine iodine is used for______?

A. Burns
B. Tinea
C. Non-specific vaginitis
D. All of the above

B-lactam antibiotics are______?

A. Penicillin
B. Imipenem
C. Cephalosporins
D. All of the above

Disseminated candidiasis requires intensive therapy with______?

A. Nystatin
B. Amphotericin
C. Interferons
D. Thiobendazole

The administration of penicillin G along with probenicid result in_____?

A. Increased excretion of probenacid in the feaces and perspiration
B. Increased excretion of probenacid in urine
C. Increased metabolis of penciling G
D. Decreased renal excretion of penciling G

All of the following drugs are components of the MOPP cancer Chemotherapy regimen EXCEPT______?

A. Procarbazine
B. Vincristine
C. Mechlorethamine
D. Methotrexate

Which one of the following drugs is an antipseudomonal penicillin ?

A. Cephalexin
B. Cloxacillin
C. Piperacillin
D. Dictoxacillin

Cephalosporin active against pseudomonas aeruginosa______?

A. Cefoperazone
B. Cefaclor
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Cefotaxime

All of the following are topically used sulphonamides except______?

A. Suphacetamide
B. Sulphadiazine
C. Silversulphadiazine
D. Mafenide

One of the following is not penicillinase susceptible______?

A. Amoxicillin
B. Penicillin G
C. Piperacillin
D. Cloxacillin

All of the following antibacterial agents acts by inhibiting cell wall systhesis except________?

A. Carbapenems
B. Monobactams
C. Cephamycins
D. Nitrofurantoins

Nevirapine is a______?

A. Protease inhibitor
B. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
D. Fusion inhibitor

A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to Staphylococcus aureus, Which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All the following antibiotics will be appropriate except_______?

A. Vancomycin
B. Imipenem
C. Teichoplanin
D. Linezolid

Which of the following drug does not show renal toxicity____?

A. Gentamycin
B. Streptomycin
C. Methoxyprenaline
D. Isoflurane

Topical Antifungal agent in candidiasis is____?

A. Clotrimazole
B. Clotrimoxazole
C. Ornidazole
D. Propronolol

AIDS is a disease if the immune system primarily affecting____?

A. Granulocytes
B. Immunoglobulins
C. Opsonins
D. T lymphocytes

Tetracycline acts on_____?

A. 30S ribosomes
B. 50S ribosomes
C. Cell membrane
D. Inhibiting DNA gyrase

Which of the following can be given as a single dose antimalarial for P.vivax malaria_____?

A. Atovaquone + Proguanil
B. Artemisinin
C. Quinine + Tetracycline
D. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxime

All are macrolide antibiotics EXCEPT______________?

A. Erythromycin
B. Roxithromycin
C. Neomycin
D. Calithromycin

Not true about PnG is_____?

A. Destroyed by gastic acid
B. Very active against sensitive gram positive coci
C. Used for treatment of meningococcal meningitis
D. More concentrated in prostatic secretion and intraocular fluids

The most preferred acute emetic for emesis induced by anticancer drugs is______?

A. Ondensetron
B. Metaclopromide
C. Chlorpromazine
D. Dicyclomine

The incidence of allergy to penicillin among various population ranges from_____?

A. 1% to 10%
B. 10% to 20%
C. 20% to 30
D. 30% to 40%

While performing a procedure, a resident doctor injures herself with a suture needle that has been used to stitch a patient with HIV infection for 11 years. He has been complaint with therapy for several years and has recently changed tablets because of alteration in his appearance. His last CD4 count was 360 cells/mm. The doctor is offered post exposure prophylaxis. Which regimen should she take ?

A. Ziduvidine and Lamivudine
B. Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Indivair
C. Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Stavudine
D. Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Abacavir

Part-5 of Pharmacology MCQs 

Tetracyclines act by_____?

A. Inhibiting the binding of aminoacyl tRNA to the ribosomal complex
B. Inhibiting peptidyl transferase
C. Inactivating elongation factors
D. Causing misreading of mRNA

Which of the following is not uridopenicillin ?

A. Piperacillin
B. Mezlocillin
C. Azlocillin
D. Flucloxacillin

Roxithromycin is____?

A. A long acting macrolide
B. Short action quinolone
C. Short acting macrolide
D. Long acting polypeptide

Not true about piperacilline is_____?

A. Active against pseudomonas aeruginose
B. Inhibits Beta-lactamase
C. It is a ureido penicillin
D. Given parenterally

1st generation cephalosporin is_____?

A. Cephadroxil
B. Cefepime
C. Cefotaxime
D. Cefoperazone

Which of the following is beta-lactam antibiotic ?

A. Sulphonamide
B. Carbamide
C. Cephalosporins
D. Ofloxacin

Mechanism of action of beta-lactam antibiotics would be_____?

A. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis by binding to subunit of bacterial ribosomes
B. Inhibition of cell wall peptidoglycan synthesis by competitive inhibition of transpetidases
C. Reduced drug causes strand breaks in DNA
D. Inhibition of DNA synthesis by inhibiting DNA-Dependent RNA polymerase

Following antimicrobials are termed as type I calcimimetics that mimic the stimulatory effect of calcium, on the calcium sensing receptor to inhibit PTH secretion by the parathyroid gland EXCEPT_____?

A. Streptomycin
B. Hamycin
C. Neomycin
D. Gentamicin

Amphotericin B is given for what etiology______?

A. Fungal
B. Viral
C. Bacterial
D. Rickettesial

Redman syndrome is side effect of______?

A. Rifampicin
B. Vancomycin
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Tetracycline

Which among the following anti-HIV drugs is also used to treat viral hepatitis B ?

A. Enfuvirtide
B. Lamivudine
C. Efavirenz
D. Ritonavir

Jerisch-Heximer reaction is treated by administering____?

A. Intravenous Penicillin G
B. Antihistamines
C. Tetracyclines
D. Steroids

Each of the following statement is correct about metronidazole EXCEPT that it______?

A. is a broad spectrum antiprotozoal drug
B. Active against bacteroides and clostridium
C. An effective alternative for infection caused by aerobic gram positive cocci
D. May cause peripheral neuropathy on prolonged use

Colour of teeth stained by tetracycline appear ______ under UV light?

A. Red
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Brown

IF a bacteria were susceptible to both penicillin and Erythromycin, then it would not be appropriate to treat the patients with both antibiotics at the same time because________?

A. Penicillin is inactivated by erythromycin
B. Erythromycin exerts its effects extracellularly
C. Erythromycin enhances the B-lactamases activity
D. Penicillin is only effective against growing cells

Which among the following anti-HIV drugs in an inhibitor of viral fusion ?

A. Enfuvirtide
B. Nelfinavir
C. Efavirenz
D. Etanercept:

Which of the most effective for drug asymptomatic amoebic cysts ?

A. Metronidazole
B. Diloxanide furoate
C. Quinidochlor
D. Furazolidone

Which drug can be safely used in lactating mothers ?

A. Ampicillin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Erythromycin

Which of the following is third generation cephalosporin ?

A. Cefeperazone
B. Cefuroxime
C. Cefoxitin
D. Cefadroxil

Which of the following is associated with neutropenia ?

A. Doxorubicin
B. Vinblastin
C. Cisplastin
D. Methotrexate

Which of the following antibiotics is not used in the treatment of infectious mononucleosis ?

A. Ampicillin
B. Gentamycin
C. Erythromycin
D. Ciprofloxacin

Which of the following is not a broad spectrum antibiotic ?

A. Tetracycline
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Doxycyclin
D. Cephalosporins

INH induced neuropathy is treated with______?

A. Thiamine
B. Pyridoxine
C. Niacin
D. Riboflavin

The group of antibiotics which possess additional anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory activities is______?

A. Tetracyclines
B. Polypeptide antibiotics
C. Fluoroquinolones
D. Macrolides

All of the following are therapeutic uses of penicillin G, except________?

A. Bacterial meningitis
B. Rickettsial infection
C. Syphilis
D. Anthrax

Clavulanic acid is given in combination with amoxicillin in order to______?

A. Reduce the risk allergic reactions:
B. Prolong amoxicillin’s half-life
C. Reduce the severity of diarrhea
D. Extend amoxicillin’s antibacterial spectrum

Which one of the following antibacterials should not be used with d-tubocuraine ?

A. Norfloxacin
B. Streptomycin
C. Doxycycline
D. Cefotaxime

Slufonamides mainly interferes with the bacterial______?

A. Transcription mechanisms
B. Translation
C. Ribosomal function

A potent non-texic anti-herpes drug is_______?

A. Acyclovir
B. Vidarabine
C. Idoxyuridine
D. Ara-amp

Amino glycosides_____?

A. Accumulate in renal failure
B. Inhibit protein synthesis
C. Effective against gram negative infection
D. All of the above

Identify the drugs useful against pseudomonanas infection________?

A. Ticarcillin
B. Ceftazidine
C. Amoxycillin
D. All of the above

Erythromycin is_____?

A. Cidal in action
B. Cidal in high concentration
C. Static in action
D. All of these

Drug of choice to treat fungal infection in AIDS is______?

A. Acyclovir
B. Ketoconazole
C. Aerosolized pentamidine
D. Didanasine

Which of the following antibiotics is found at much higher concentrations in cervicular fluid than in serum ?

A. Clindamycin
B. Penicillin
C. Tetracyline
D. Metronidazole

Which of the following penicillins has the best gram negative spectrum ?

A. Methicillin
B. Ampicillin
C. Penicillin V
D. Cefixime

All of the following drugs are primarily bacteriostatic except____?

A. Sulphonamide
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Ethambutol
D. Rifampin

Tetracycline when given to pregnant woman can cause______?

A. Acute hepatic necrosis
B. Discoloration/ staining of hard structures of foetus
C. Increased intracranial pressure in infant
D. All of the above

All of the following are features of streptomycin drug except______?

A. It is an antitubercular drug
B. It can be given orally
C. Effective against g-ve organisms
D. None of the above

All of the following drugs are contraindicated in patients with G-6-PD deficiency, except_____?

A. Cotrimoxazole
B. Furazolidone
C. Nalidixic acid
D. Ceftriaxone

All except one are centrally acting muscle blocks____?

A. Meprobamate
B. Baclofen
C. Diazepam
D. Dantrolene sodium

Ivermectin is indicated in______?

A. Scabies
B. Intestinal nematode infection
C. Filariasis
D. All of the above

Drug to be avoided in a patient allergic to penicillin is_____?

A. Sulphonamide
B. Tetracycline
C. Ampicillin
D. Cholarmphenicol

Drugs which cause ototoxicity and circumoral paraesthesia are______?

A. Antileprotic drugs
B. Antitubercular drugs
C. Streptomycin
D. Chloramphenicol

Which of the following is a characteristic of tetracycline stains ?

A. There is less deposition in dentine as compared to enamel
B. Is always accompanied by hypolastic defects
C. Stains are dark brown in color
D. Stained teeth fluoresce light yellow under U.V light

Which anti tubercullar drug will cause transjent memory loss ?

A. Enthionamide
C. Ethambutol
D. Pyrazinamide

Which of the following is the main difference between penicillin V and penicillin G_____?

A. Penicilline-V is more stable gastric acid
B. Penicilline-G is more absorbed from the G.I.T
C. Penicilline-G is more allergic than penicillin-V
D. None of the above

Which among the following is the drug of choice for clostridium difficile induced colitis ?

A. Gentamicin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Metronidazole
D. Linezolid

More potent and non toxic drug against herpes virus is______?

A. Zidovodine
B. Acyclovir
C. Nystatin
D. Amontidine

All of the following statement about antimalarial drugs are correct except_____?

A. Primaquine is liable to cause hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency
B. Halofantrine prolongs QT interval and causes dysarrythmia
C. Mefloquine may safely be given to air pilots
D. Primaquine eliminates P. vivax and P. ovale

All of the following cephalosporines are active against Pseudomonas Except_______?

A. Ceftazidine
B. Cefotaxime
C. Cefoperazone
D. Cefaclor

Agent used in oral thrush____?

A. Miconazole
B. Clobetasol
C. Clotrimazole
D. Amoxycillin


A. Antifungal agent
B. Antibacterial
C. Antiviral agent
D. Chemotherapic agent

Mechanism of action of chlortetracycline_____?

A. Interfere with metabolism
B. Inhibition of protein synthesis
C. Inhibition of cell wall formation
D. Interfere with DNA function

One of the drug is betalactamase inhibitor_____?

A. Ampicillin
B. Sulbactum
C. Cloxacillin
D. Pencillin G

The following adverse effect of penicillin is dose related_____?

A. Skin rash
B. Intersititial Nephritis
C. Drug fever
D. Encephalopathy

The following are the indications for Metronidazole except_______?

A. Ulcerative gingivitis
B. Amoebiasis
C. Trichomonas infection
D. Streptococcal sore throat

Traces of which of the antibiotics can be found in the gingival fluid after administration____?

A. Tetracycline
B. Lincomycin
C. Clindamyclin
D. Penicillin G

Drug of choice in Amoebic liver abscess besides metronidazole is______?

A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Chloroquin
C. Mebendazole
D. Bephenium Naphthoate

Which of the following antibiotics is effective in treating oral candidiasis ?

A. Nystatin
B. Bacitracin
C. Penicillin
D. Tetracycline

Which among the drugs given below, does Not act by protease inhibition ?

A. Ritonavir
B. Saquinavir
C. Nelfinavir
D. Zanamivir

Drugs producing ototoxicity and Nephro toxicity are_____?

A. Tetracyclines
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Quinalones
D. Macrolides

Phototoxicity is the side effect of______?

A. Penicillin
B. Demeclocycline
C. Erythormycin
D. Streptomycin

Tetracycline chelates with_____?

A. Ca salts
B. Mg salts
C. All salts
D. All of the above

Antibiotic that achieves high concentration in Hard tissue, because of its molecular size is______?

A. Ceftum
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Clindamycin
D. Erythromycin

Bacitracin is a_______?

A. Oral antibiotic
B. Topical antibiotic
C. Parenteral antibiotic
D. All of the above

Metronidazole is a type of_____?

A. Broad spectrum antibiotic
B. Quinolone
C. Imidazole derivative
D. Antidepressant

Cell wall synthesis is inhibited by all except_____?

A. Lincomycin
B. Penicillin
C. Cephalexin
D. Ampicillin

First line of antitubercular drug is_____?

A. Streptomycin
C. Ethambutol
D. Cephalosporins

The aminoglycoside with least toxic effect is______?

A. Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid
C. Streptomycin
D. Kanamycin

Drug which is most unsafe during pregnancy is______?

A. Ethambutol
B. Streptomycin
C. Kanamycin
D. B & C

Tetracycline in children causes______?

A. Calcification
B. Missing teeth
C. Discolored teeth
D. Peg teeth

Tetracycline is more preferred in periodontics because______?

A. It is broad spectrum antibiotic
B. It has anticollagenolytic effect
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

The most serious side effect of drug chloramp henicol is_____?

A. Candidiasis
B. Photosensitivity
C. Bone marrow depression
D. Angioneurotic oedema

Which of the following drug control lepramin reaction_____?

A. Dapsone
B. Streptomycin
C. Clofazimine
D. Ethambutol

Oral contraceptive failure occurs in a patient on Rifampicin because of_____?

A. Rifampicin induce the metabolism of contra ceptive
B. Rifampicin simulates gonadotropin relase from pituitary
C. Rifampicin decrease the secretion of progestin
D. Rifampicin antagonize the action of oral contraceptive

Optic neuritis is a side effect of_______?

A. Rifampicin
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol

Among the drugs given below, which is LEAST likely to be implicated in drug induced hepatitis ?

A. Isoniazid
B. Streptomycin
C. Ripampicin
D. Pyrazinamide

Which of the following is caused by Amphotericin B______?

A. Hypo Kalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypermagnesemia
D. Hyponatremia

Oral infection by penicillinase producing organisms should be treated with_____?

A. Ampicillin
B. Dicloxacillin
C. Erythromycin
D. Any of the above

Stepwise mutation for drug resistance is seen with_____?

A. Penicillin
B. Streptomycin
C. Garamycin
D. Kanamycin

Which of the following penicillins is given by oral route ?

A. Benzyl penicillin
B. Benzathine penicillin
C. Procaine pencillin
D. Penicillin V / Phenoxymethyl penicillin

Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity is caused by______?

A. Antiemetic
B. Antiviral
C. Antifungal
D. antibiotic

One of the below mentioned penicillin is NOT given orally_____?

A. Amoxicillin
B. Carbenicillin
C. Cloxacillin
D. Phenoxymethy penicillin

Combination chemotherapy is used in tuberculosis in order to reduce_____?

A. Side effects of drugs
B. Cost of therapy
C. Dosage of drugs
D. Development of drug resistance

Which one of the following antibiotics chelates with calcium ?

A. pencillin
B. Tetracycline
C. Cephalosporins
D. Erythromycin

Clavulanic acid added to ampicillin causes_____?

A. Increase effectivity against gram-negative organisms
B. Inhibition of B-lactamases
C. Increase the effectiveness against delta lactamase producing organism
D. Increase effectivity against gram-positive organisms

Cephalosporines have all of the following interactions except_______?

A. Show cross sensitivity with penicillins
B. Are penicillinase resistant
C. Have a broad spectrum but are inactive against anaerobes
D. Are used in upper respiratory tract infections

In the treatment of intestinal of intestinal and extraintestinal amoebiasis which of the following drug is useful______?

A. Diloxane
B. Metronidazole
C. Chloroquine
D. Cefaclor

The drug which gives orange colour to the urine is______?

A. Rifampicin
B. Ethambutol
D. Streptomycin

Which of the following is penicillinase resistant penicillin_____?

A. Amoxycillin
B. Cloxacillin
C. Ampicillin
D. Penicillin G

Desfuroxamide is a drug used for_______?

A. Kala azar
B. Pernicious anaemia
C. Pain control
D. Thalassemia

A patient has seasonal allergic rhinitis and is on terfenadine, He develps cardiac arrhythmias after a course of antibiotics. Which of the following antibiotic could have been given_______?

A. Ampicillin
B. Tetracyclin
C. Erythromycin
D. Co-trimoxazole

Antifungal drug not used in the treatment of imtestinal candidiasis______?

A. Amphotericin
B. Nystatin
C. Ketoconazole
D. Clotrimazole

The drug of choice for treatment of tyhoid is_____?

A. Tetracycline
B. Metronidazole
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Cefotaxim

The bacterial resistance to tetracycline is due to______?

A. Alteration of drug binding sites
B. Alteration of dehydrofolate reductase
C. Inactivation of drug by enzymes
D. Decreased uptake of drug by bacteria

Mechanism of action of quinolones is_____?

A. Inhibits DNA gyrase
B. Inhibits Bacterial protein synthesis
C. Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis
D. Inhibits intake of folic acid

Tetracycline is contraindicated in_______?

A. Children
B. Pregnancy
C. Renal failure
D. All of the above

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Part-6 of Pharmacology MCQs 

The antibiotic of choice in patients sensitive to penicillin is______?

A. Erythromycin
B. Streptomycin
C. Tetracycline
D. Chloramphenicol

Chloramphenicol can cause_____?

A. Staining of teeth
B. Aplastic anaemia
C. Bone marrow suppression
D. B & C

The therapeutic advantage that pencillin V has over pencillin G is______?

A. More reliable oral obsorption
B. Greater resistance to pencillinase
C. Slower renal excretion
D. Broader antibacterial spectrum

Which of the following is primarily a bactericidal drug?

A. Chloramphenicol
B. Gentamicin
C. Sulphadiazine
D. Tetracycline

The most common side effect of the oral administration of ampicillin is_______?

A. Anaphylactic shock
B. Diarrhoea
C. Oral candidiasis
D. Renal failure

Indirect sympathomimetics can_____?

A. Penetrate the blood brain barrier
B. Cause euphoria
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

The principle therapeutic action of the glucocorticoid is____?

A. Antidiuretic
B. Antianabolic
C. Anti-infective
D. Anti-inflammatory

A patient is having bronchodilation, increased temperature, constipation and tachycardia. The tentative diagnosis is_____?

A. Oraganophosphate poisoning
B. Paracetamol poisoning
C. Mushroom poisoning
D. Atropine poisoning

Which is NOT a 2nd generation antihistaminic ?

A. Loratidine
B. Acrivastatine
C. Cyclizine
D. Terfenidine

All of the following glucocorticorticoids can be given by inhalation EXCEPT______?

A. Dexamethasone
B. Beclomethasone
C. Budesonide
D. Fluticasone

Mode of action of sulphonyl ureas includes all the following except_____?

A. Activating receptors on beta cells of pancreas to release insulin
B. Inhibiting gluconeogenesis in liver
C. Enhancing insulin mediated post receptor enzyme reaction
D. Decreasing Glucose absorption from the qut

All are true about nitric oxide, EXCEPT_____?

A. Regulates vasomotor tone
B. Acts via cAMP
C. Present in cigarette smoke
D. It is important in penile erection

Cloidogrel is an_______?

A. Anti hypertensive
B. Antidiabetic
C. Antipalatelet
D. Anticoagulant

Drugs causing hyperglycemia____?

A. B-blocker
B. Glucocorticoids
C. Acetylcholine
D. a-blockers

The toxic effect of Beta receptor antagonists includes all the following EXCEPT_____?

A. Hypoglycemic episodes in diabetes
B. Worsening of preexisting asthma
C. Ischemic cardiac episode on abrupt discontinuation
D. Precipitate migrainic effect

Which of the following combination of iron can be given both IM and IV_____?

A. Iron dextran
B. Iron Sorbitol Citrate Solution
C. ferrous Sulphate
D. ferrous Humourate

D-tubocurarine blocks the neuromuscular transmission by____?

A. Blocking acetylcholine receptors
B. Prevent release of acetyl choline
C. Destroys acetyl choline
D. Inactivate acetylcholine esterase enzyme

Which of the following general anesthetics is given by intravenous route ?

A. Propofol
B. Sevofluorane
C. Naloxane
D. Flumizenil

Which of the following drugs undergoes “Hoffmann elimination” ?

A. d-tubecurarine
B. Acetycholine
C. Atracurium
D. Acetazolamide

Which one of the following drugs is not a reversible anticholinesterase drug ?

A. Edrophonium
B. Demecarium
C. Carbaryl
D. Tacrine

In treating Xerostomia, Which of the following might be prescribed ?

A. Atropine
B. Neostigmine
C. Scopalamine
D. Ephedrine

Atropine is used in_____?

A. Organophosphate poisoning
B. Chronic glaucoma
C. Syncope
D. Trigeminal neuralgia

Which one of the following can be blocked by atropine ?

A. Decreased blood pleasure caused by hexamethonium
B. Increased blood pressure caused by nicotine
C. Tachycardia caused by exercise
D. Tachycardia caused by infusion of acetylcholine

Which of the following drugs is used therapeutically during allergic conditions ?

A. Epinephrine
B. Succinylcholine
C. Tetracycline
D. Sulfonamides

The drug which activates plasma antithrombin -III for its anticogulant action is_____?

A. Dicumarol
B. Idphenadione
C. Heparin
D. Phenindone

Role of Heparin______?

A. Prevents synthesis of prothrombin
B. Prevents synthesis of fibrinogen
C. Prevents conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
D. Prevents prothrombin conversion to thrombin

An oral hypoglycemic agent is____?

A. Warfarin
B. Insultin
C. Glibeneclamide
D. Gluengon

All of the following are true about tolbutamide except_____?

A. It is taken orally
B. It is used in type-I diabetes mellitus
C. It causes alcohol intolerance
D. It acts on pancreas to stimulate release of insulin

Morphine withdrawal is characterized by all EXCEPT______?

A. Miosis
B. Yawning
C. Lacrimation
D. Diarrhoea

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding warfarin______?

A. Transient hypercoagulability is seen
B. Better avoided during pregnancy as it may causes skeletal deformity of the foetus
C. In a racemic mixture the R form is four times more active than the S form
D. The anticoagulant effect is seen only after 72 hours of administration

The anticoagulant action of Warfarin is potentiated by all except______?

A. Phenylbutazone
B. Vitamin K
C. Rifampicin
D. B & C

Triflusal is a______?

A. Anti-inflaqmmatory drug
B. Antibiotic
C. Anti-arthritic drug
D. Antiplatelet drug

Agents/Drugs which help in rapid coagulation of Blood______?

A. Astrigents
B. Styptics
C. Haemostatics
D. All of the above

In which of the following categories are ephedrine, tyramine and emphetamine classified______?

A. Anticholinesterases
B. Alpha-adrenergic blocking agents
C. Indirect acting sympathomimetics
D. Direct acting sympathomimetics

Scopolamine helps in_______?

A. Motion sickness
B. Hypertension
C. Decreased secretions
D. A & C

Short-acting non-depolarising muscle relaxant is_______?

A. Succinylcholine
B. Pancuronium
C. Mivacurum
D. Decamethonium

Succinylcholine prevents bronchospasm by___?

A. Depolarising block
B. Direct muscle relaxation
C. Centrally acting muscle relaxation
D. Dual action

Fellypressin is a_____?

A. Vaso dilator
B. Vaso constrictor
C. Neuroleptic
D. Anti coagulant

Which of the following is NOT an important/frequent/well-known manifestation of an adverse drug reaction ?

A. Agranulocytosis
B. Aplastic anaemia
C. Aaemolysis
D. Leukaemia

The drug which is contraindicated in haemophilla is____?

A. Aspirin
B. Penicillinium
C. Amino epsilon caproic acid
D. Dipheny 1 hydantoin

Which of the following is a peripherally acting muscle relaxant______?

A. Chlorozoxazone
B. Methocarbomol
C. Succinyl choline
D. Cortisopradol

Which of the following receptors is activated by acetylcholine and blocked by atropine_____?

A. Nicotinic
B. Muscarinic
C. Alpha 1 and 2
D. Beta 1 and 2

Neuromuscular blocking agent with duration of onset of action less than 2 minutes is______?

A. D-tubocuraine
B. Succinyl choline
C. Pancuronium
D. Gallamine

Succinylcholine is a/an_____?

A. Intravenous anaesthetic agent
B. Non-depolarizing muscle relaxant
C. Short-acting narcotic
D. None of the above

All are true about metformin except______?

A. Inhibits cellular respiration in mitochondria
B. Excreted unchanged in urine
C. Reduce hepatic glucose production
D. Used in decompensated heart failure

A patient taking beta-blocker preoperatively, at induction of anaesthesia with fentanyl. Which muscle relaxant should be avoided ?

A. Pancuronium
B. Rocuronium
C. Vecuronium
D. Atracurium

Sialogouges are____?

A. Increases salivary secretions
B. Decrease salivary secreations
C. Indicator dye for sialography
D. Medication for over function

Adrenaline is used in following EXCEPT_______?

A. With xylocaine
B. Post extraction socket
C. Anaphylactin shock
D. Angina in dental chair
E. Both B & D

All of the following have receptors which are transcription factors except_____?

A. Insulin
B. Estrogen
C. Vitamin D
D. Glucocorticoid

Which one of the following agents/ drugs is of no value in the post operative care of the hemophiliac patient ?

A. Tranexamic acid
B. Clopidogrel
C. Aminocarproic Acid
D. Factor VIII cryoprecipitate

Which one of the following does NOT act by increasing insulin secretion______?

A. Glyburide
B. Repaglinide
C. Tolbutamide
D. Biguanide

Curare poisoning is characterised by_______?

A. Hypertension
B. Hypotension
C. Doesn’t release histamine
D. Oral route of administration is the best route

Which of the following drugs is used to treat both diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus____?

A. Chlorpropamide
B. Glibenclamide
C. Glicazide
D. Glipizide

Which of the following synthetic sterioid shows predominantly mineralocorticoid action ?

A. Hydrocortisone
B. Spironolactone
C. Dexamethsone
D. Fludrocortisone

All of the following are endogenous corticosteriods released by all adrenal cortex EXCEPT_____?

A. Cortisol
B. Cortisone
C. Dexamethsone
D. Aldosterone

Therapeutic uses of a – adrenoceptor blockers include all of the following EXCEPT_____?

A. Hypertension
B. Amxiety
C. Peripheral Vascular disease
D. Benign Prostatic hypertrophy

Which one of the following drugs is not a non depolarizing competitive neuromuscular blocker ?

A. Doxacurim
B. Decamethonium
C. Rocuronium
D. Mivacurium

Dry mouth during antidepressant therapy is caused by blockade of_____?

A. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
B. Serotonergic receptors
C. Dopaminergic receptors
D. GABA receptors

A person with glaucoma should not receive_____?

A. Sedatives
B. Vasoconstrictors
C. Antisialogogues
D. Local anaesthetic

Bleeding from the oral mucosa can be reduced by topical use of_______?

A. Epinephrine
B. Lidnocaine
C. Hydrocortisone
D. Dicoumarol

If patient is given Noradrenaline what will happen________?

A. Cause increase in B.P, due to its action on Beta receptors only
B. Cause decrease in B.P, due to its action on Alpha receptors only
C. Cause decrease in cardiac output and relax bradycardia
D. None of the above

Rebound phenomenon is most commonly seen with use of_______?

A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Phenyleprine
D. Leuonordefrin

The anticogulant of choice during pregnancy is_____?

A. Warfarin sodium
B. Sodium oxalate
C. Heparin
D. Phenindone

Identify the factors which decrease the effect of Oral anticoagulants______?

A. Pregnancy
B. Nephrotic syndorme
C. Newborn
D. Liver disease
E. Both A & B

The highest risk associated with use of oral contraceptives in________________?

A. Hepatic necrosis
B. Permanent sterility
C. Thromboembolic disorders
D. Cancer of breast

Which of the following drugs is not hypoglycemic?

A. Ethosuxinide
B. Tolbutamide
C. Glibenclamide
D. Gluengon


A. Steroids reduce the rate of repair of tissues thus delays the healing
B. Exacerbate the inflammatory response
C. Can be safely given to immunocompromised patients
D. Indicated in oral thrush

Which of the following is a vosoconstrictor______?

A. Bupivacaine
B. Procaine
C. Lidocaine
D. None of the above

Warfarin therapy is prolonged by all except_____?

A. Rifampicin
B. Amoxycillin
C. Erythromycin
D. Tetracycline

Excessive bleeding due to heparin overdose is controlled by______?

A. Protamine sultate
B. Vitamin K
C. Factor VIII

Heparin, apart from releasing lypoprotein lipase in the blood exerts its anti-coagulant action by_____?

A. Binding to calcium
B. Inhibiting fibrinogen synthesis
C. Inhibiting prothrombin synthesis
D. Inhibiting thrombin synthesis

Delay in blood coagulation results from______?

A. Human thrombin
B. Heparin
C. Ferric chloride
D. Vit-K

Which of the following is not an action of epinephrine when administered intravenously in a high dose ?

A. Increased liver glycogenolysis
B. Causes broachiolar constriction
C. Evokes extrasystoles in the heart
D. Produces restlessness and anxiety

The antidote for heparin is______?

A. Penicillinase
B. Protamine sulphate
C. Pryosulphate
D. Potassium sulphate

An excess of which of the following hormones may be associated with increased sensitivity to epinephrine ?

A. Testosterone
B. Parathyroid
C. Insulin
D. Thyroid


A. Lowers the intraocular pressure in glaucoma
B. Cleaved by acetylcholinesterase
C. Inhibits sweat and lacrimation
D. Causes tachycardia

The drug which is used to treat laryngospasm is_______?

A. Atropine
B. Diazepam
C. Neostigmine
D. Succinylcholine

The drug of choice in the management of life threatening allergic reaction is_____?

A. Corticosteroids
B. Antihistamines
C. Adrenalin
D. Diazepam

The following drugs are avoided with warfarin _____?

A. Antacids
B. Benzodiazepine
C. Nsaid’s like Ibuprofen
D. Codeine, dihydrocodeine, paracetmol

Beta 2 agonist causes______?

A. Mydriasis
B. Contraction of urinary spinctors
C. Vasoconstriction
D. Bronchial muscle relaxation

The metabolic effects of sympathomimetics are mediated by______?

A. All beta-adrenergic receptors
B. Dopaminergic receptors
C. Beta 2 receptors
D. Opioid receptors

Which of the following group of drugs are a neuromuscular blocking agents_____?

A. choline, adrenaline and amphetamine
B. Glycinium neostigamine and physostigamine
C. Pancuronium, rocuronium
D. Pirenzipine, propanolol and propantheline

All of the following drugs are non depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents except_____?

A. D-tubocurarine
B. Gallamine triethiodide
C. Pancuronium bromide
D. Succinylcholine

The intramuscular administration of 0.6 mg of atropine sulphate to a 50 – kg adult may produce all of the following effects except_______?

A. Bradycardia
B. Decreased Salivation
C. Decreased Sweating
D. Mydriasis

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