Pathology MCQs (Past Papers of Medical Tests)
Those who want to get a job in Pakistan Forces as a Medical Doctor, they have to clear Intelligence tests as well as academic tests related to the medical fields. Shaheen Forces Academy always tried to provide right guidance and material which neither helps but also to clear all tests related to become a medical officer in Pakistan Forces like Army, Navy and PAF.
There are different branches of medical fields that required different types of tests as per specialization of the individuals. Pathology MCQs are one part of the tests area which help to prepare written medical tests of M-Cadet. Pathology MCQs are also helpful for AFNS and Short Service Regular Commission in Pak Army, Short Service Commission in Pak Navy and in PAF as a Medical Officer.
Following Pathology MCQs have been collected from the different past tests of M-Cadet or Medical Tests of Short Service Regular Commission. All Pathology MCQs are given with answers which is also called a MCQs Bank.
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Pathology Examination Questions for Medical Tests
Which of the following is correct ?
A. Pyknosis – shrinkage of nucleus
B. Karyolysis – Dissolution of nucleus
C. Karyorrhexis – fragmentation of nucleus
D. All of the above
Which of the following statement is ____?
A. Low density lipoproteins has maximum association with atherosclerosis
B. High density lipoproteins have protective role in atherosclerosis
C. Poly unsaturated fats lowers plasma cholesterol levels
D. HDL contains the highest cholesterol content
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Arterial thrombi produces ischemia and infarction where as cardiac and venous thrombi cause embolism
B. Arterial thrombi to be white and non occlusive (mural) where as venous thrombi are red and occlusive
C. Venous thrombi are soft, red and gelatinous where as arterial thrombi are firm and white
D. All of the above
Which of the following is not an action of epinephrine when administered intravenously in a high dose ?
A. Increased liver glycogenolysis
B. Causes broachiolar constriction
C. Evokes extrasystoles in the heart
D. Produces restlessness and anxiety
The antidote for heparin is_______?
A. Penicillinase
B. Protamine sulphate
C. Pryosulphate
D. Potassium sulphate
An excess of which of the following hormones may be associated with increased sensitivity to epinephrine ?
A. Testosterone
B. Parathyroid
C. Insulin
D. Thyroid
Pilocarpine______?
A. Lowers the intraocular pressure in glaucoma
B. Cleaved by acetylcholinesterase
C. Inhibits sweat and lacrimation
D. Causes tachycardia
The drug which is used to treat laryngospasm is______?
A. Atropine
B. Diazepam
C. Neostigmine
D. Succinylcholine
The drug of choice in the management of life threatening allergic reaction is_______?
A. Corticosteroids
B. Antihistamines
C. Adrenalin
D. Diazepam
The following drugs are avoided with warfarin ______?
A. Antacids
B. Benzodiazepine
C. Nsaid’s like Ibuprofen
D. Codeine, dihydrocodeine, paracetmol
Beta 2 agonist causes______?
A. Mydriasis
B. Contraction of urinary spinctors
C. Vasoconstriction
D. Bronchial muscle relaxation
The metabolic effects of sympathomimetics are mediated by_________?
A. All beta-adrenergic receptors
B. Dopaminergic receptors
C. Beta 2 receptors
D. Opioid receptors
Which of the following group of drugs are a neuromuscular blocking agents_______?
A. choline, adrenaline and amphetamine
B. Glycinium neostigamine and physostigamine
C. Pancuronium, rocuronium
D. Pirenzipine, propanolol and propantheline
All of the following drugs are non depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents except_____?
A. D-tubocurarine
B. Gallamine triethiodide
C. Pancuronium bromide
D. Succinylcholine
The intramuscular administration of 0.6 mg of atropine sulphate to a 50 – kg adult may produce all of the following effects except_______?
A. Bradycardia
B. Decreased Salivation
C. Decreased Sweating
D. Mydriasis
All of the following statements are true regarding cervicofacial actinomycosis, EXCEPT_____________?
A. 110-20% of actinomycosis cases occur in cervicofacial region
B. The discharging pus contains visible sulphur granules
C. Cultures on blood agar often produce a typical molar tooth morphology
D. There is usually history of trauma such as tooth extraction or a blow to the jaw
Mural thrombi are thrombi in_______?
A. Heart chamber
B. Valve cusp
C. Vein
D. Arteries
Heterozygous sickle cell anaemia gives protection against_______?
A. G6PD
B. Malaria
C. Thalassemia
D. Dengue fever
The correct nomenclature for Down’s syndrome with translocation of chromosome 14 to chromosome 21 is depicted as_____?
A. 47 X &, (+2)
B. 47 X Y, -14 t(14;21)
C. 46 X Y, -14 t(14;21)
D. 47 X Y, t(14;21)
T-Helper cells (TH2) initiates which type of immunity_____?
A. Induces cell mediated immunity
B. Induces Humoral immunity
C. Induces immunity by activation of cytoxic T-cells
D. None of the above
Daily loss of iron per day in a healthy adult male is_____?
A. 0.06 mg
B. 0.6 mg
C. 60 mg
D. 600 mg
HOX gene is responsible for which malformation_____?
A. Polysyndactyly
B. Holoprosencephaly
C. Mayer Rokitansky syndrome
D. Gorlin syndrome
Fibrin degradation product help in detection of________?
A. haemophilia
B. DIC
C. Thrombocytopenic purpura
D. Thrombasthenia
Syndrome which is characterized by 2X chromosomes and 1Y chromosome is_____________?
A. Kleinfelters syndrome
B. Down syndrome
C. Turner syndrome
D. Marfan syndrome
Most common cause of pulmonary embolism ?
A. Thrombophebitis
B. Endarteritis
C. Atheroscleroses
D. Lymphangitis
A infant with cleft lip, palate, polydactly, microcephaly with holoprosencephaly, ectodermal scalp defect is suffering from ?
A. Trisomy 21
B. Trisomy 18
C. Trisomy 13
D. Turner syndrome
Following is used to stain fungi______?
A. PAS
B. Fontania stain
C. Ferrous trichrome
D. Pearls prussian blue
Which one of the following does not present antigens ?
A. NK cells (Netural killer cells)
B. Dendritic cells
C. Langerhan’s cells
D. Macrophages
Egg shell calcification of Hilar Lymphnode is associated with____?
A. Silicosis
B. Asbestosis
C. Byssinosis
D. Anthracosis
Phagocytes kill bacteria through which mechanism_______?
A. Membrane attack complex killing
B. Oxidative and non-oxidative killing
C. Zipper killing
D. Chemotaxis
Not sequelae of cellular events in atheroscierotic infarction____?
A. Neutrophilic infiltration
B. Astrocytes
C. Ingress of macrophages
D. Intense eosinophilia
A patient has increased number of columnar cells in lower esophagus. He has which of the following change________?
A. Dysplasia
B. Anaplasia
C. Metaplasia
D. Normal histology
A patient with amenorrhea, short stature, less public hair can be in all of the following except___________?
A. 47 XXY
B. 46 XY
C. 45 X
D. 46 XXY
Down syndrome is caused by all except______?
A. Trisomy of 21 chromosome
B. Mosaicism of 21 chromosome
C. Robersonian translocation of 21.21, 21.18
D. Deletion of 21
NK cells are effective against viral infected cells only if the cell with infection___________?
A. Express MHC class I proteins
B. Unable to express MHC class I proteins
C. Express MHC class II proteins
D. Unable to express MHC class II proteins
Tumour involving epiphysis of long bone is_______?
A. Osteogenic sarcoma
B. Osteoclastoma
C. Ewings sarcoma
D. Chondro sarcoma
A haemophilia person has married to a normal woman Then his_____?
A. Daughter are carrier
B. Sons are infected
C. Daughter are infeted
D. All are normal
A 13 year old boy presents with a large mixed lytic and blastic mass in the metaphyseal region of the lower end of femur. The most likely diagnosis is___________?
A. Ewing’s sarcoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Chondrosarcoma
D. Giant cell tumour
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Pathology Multiple-Choice Questions for Medical Tests
Endotoxic shock is propagated______?
A. Endothelial injury
B. Peripheral vasodilation
C. Increased vascular permeability
D. Cytokine action
DiGeorge’s syndrome is due to_____?
A. Congenital thymic aplasia
B. Deficiency of complement factor
C. Inborn error of metabolism
D. Chromosomal anomaly
A child’s CSF was examined I contains slightly raised or normal PMN cells, raised lymphocytes, absence of mycotic growth, value of protein is normal or above normal, glucose level is normal. The most probable diagnosis is____________?
A. Pyogenic bacterial meningitis
B. Viral meningitis
C. Fungal meningitis
D. Tuberculous meningitis
Bone marrow stem cells differ from differ from differentiated progenitor stem cells in what respect ?
A. Provide differentiated terminal cells
B. Reconstitution of Bone marrow
C. Formation of the ovum
D. Act as a repair system for the body
Which is true about Multiple myeloma ?
A. IgM spike increase
B. Direct plasma cell deposition in glomerular capilaries leads to kidney damage
C. IL 8 is a marker for bone lesions
D. Invariably increase in alkaline phosphatase
Which of the following procedures is used as a routine technique in karyotyping using light microscopy ?
A. G banding
B. C banding
C. Q banding
D. Brd V-staining
Prostate specific antigen is used as____________?
A. Tumor marker
B. Proto oncogene
C. Oncogene
D. Bacterial antigen
Which is associated with defect in DNA repair___________?
A. Xeroderma pigmentosum
B. Albinism
C. Icthyosis
D. Sickle cell anaemia
All of the following types of collagen except one are present in cartliage__________?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 9
Which of the following is most common location of intracranial neurocysticercoses ?
A. Brain parenchyma
B. Spinal card
C. Basal cisternae
D. Medulla oblongata
Why fetal cells continue to divide but terminally differentiated adult cells do not divide ?
A. There are many cyclin inhibitors which prevent cell to enter into S phase in adult
B. Phosphatase absent in fetal cells
C. Proteinase is absent in fetus
D. Absence of CD kinase
Which of the following is not present in lungs ?
A. Clara cells
B. Langerhans cells
C. Brush cells
D. Klutischky cells
Tha gene for Breast Cancer (BRCA) is present on chromosome_____?
A. 21
B. 17
C. 15
D. 9
Barr body is associated with________?
A. Metaphase
B. Interphase
C. Anaphase
D. Prophase
Leucopenia is characteristic of____________?
A. Appendicitis
B. Enteric fever
C. Meningitis
D. Myocardial infarction
Syndrome associated with increased risk of leukemia is__________?
A. Plummer vinson syndrome
B. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Sturge weber syndrome
D. Multiple hamartoma syndrome
Saddle embolus causes sudden death by blocking______?
A. Coronary arteries
B. Cerebral arteries
C. Pulmonary arteries
D. Renal arteries
Disappearance of nuclear chromatin is called as______?
A. Pyknosis
B. Karyolysis
C. Karyorhexis
D. None
An acute inflammation would attract_______?
A. Monocytes
B. Plasma cells
C. Neutrophils
D. Eosinophils
Which of the following is not a mediator of inflammation___________?
A. Interferon
B. Prostaglandins
C. TNF
D. Myeloperoxidase
Anaphylotoxins are___________?
A. C3a, C5a
B. C3b, C5a
C. C2, C3
D. C3b, C5b
Tissue macrophages are called__________?
A. Kupffer cells in liver
B. Microglial cells in nervous system
C. Histiocytes in connective tissues
D. All of the above
Early positive reaction in lepromin test is_____?
A. Fernandez reaction
B. Mituda reaction
C. Wasserman reaction
D. None of the above
The characteristic feature of macrophage______?
A. High capacity to divide
B. Limited capacity to divide
C. Long life span as compared to lymphocytes
D. Both B and C
The type of immunity activated in tuberculosis is_______?
A. Cell mediated
B. Humoral
C. Foreign body reaction
D. None of the above
Chronic inflammation is characterized by____?
A. Presence of macrophages
B. Tissue
C. Proliferation of fibroblasts and endothelial cells
D. All of the above
The characteristic cells of chronic inflammation are all except_______?
A. Plasma cells
B. Macrophages
C. Lymphocytes
D. PMN’s
All of the following are true for exudates, except__________?
A. It has a specific gravity of 1.018
B. It has a low fibrin content
C. It has more than 3% proteins
D. It is mucinous in consistency
VIRCHOW’s cells are seen in___________?
A. Lepromatous leprosy
B. Tuberculoid leprosy
C. Borderline lepromatous leprosy
D. Intermediate leprosy
IL-1 helps in_____________?
A. Stimulation of T-lymphocytes
B. Inhibits of B-lymphocytes
C. Inhibits the chemotaxis of neutrophils and macrophages
D. Decreases firbroblast and bone resorption activity
Which of the following cells are more abundant in chronic inflammation than in acute inflammation?
A. Plasma cells
B. Eosinophils
C. Neutrophils
D. Normoblats
In chronic, granulomatous inflammation, which of the following processes is most likely to predominate ?
A. Exudation
B. Congestion
C. Transudation
D. Proliferation
Following are functions of prostaglandins except__________?
A. Increase capillary permeability
B. Uterine contraction
C. Lower blood pressure
D. Elevates blood pressure
Transudate is characterized by__________?
A. Associated inflammatory conditions
B. Low protein content
C. Tendency to clot
D. Specific gravity of above 1.018
Which cell releases vasoactive amine so as to increase vascular permeability ?
A. Leukocyte
B. Marcophage
C. Mast cell
D. Fibroblast
An acute inflammatory focus would attract______?
A. Monocytes
B. Plasma cells
C. Neutrophils
D. Basophils
The vasoactive amine that causes vasodilatation released during inflammation is found in which of the cell_____?
A. Plasma cells
B. Lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Mast cells
Bradykinin causes all the following except____________?
A. Smooth muscle contraction
B. Dilatation of blood vessels
C. Pain
D. Opsonisation
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TOP MCQs on General Pathology and Answers
Which of the following statement about fibrinous exudate is FALSE ?
A. It is associated with many types of severe inflammation
B. It has low protein content
C. It has fibrin precipitates
D. It induces connective tissue organization
All of the following vascular changes are observed in acute inflammation except_______?
A. Vasodilation
B. Stasis of blood
C. Increased vascular permeability
D. Decreased hydrostatic pressure
Virchow Lepra cells are seen in___________?
A. Tuberculoid leprosy
B. Ideterminate leprosy
C. Borderline tuberculoid leprosy
D. lepromatous leprosy
Cold abscess formation is due to______?
A. Presence of acute inflammation
B. Formation of caseous pus with signs of acute inflammation
C. Formation of caseous pus without signs of acute inflammation
D. Infected cyst
Lipofuschin is an insoluble endogenous pigment, also known as___________?
A. Lipochrome
B. Wear and tear pigment
C. Aging pigment
D. All of the above
Earliest transient change following tissue injury_____________?
A. Neutrophilia
B. Neutropenia
C. Monocytoses
D. Lymphocytoses
Which of the following is NOT a constituent of Virchow’s traid ?
A. Damage to endothelium due to injury or inflammation
B. Diminished rate of blood flow
C. Increased coagulability of blood
D. Increased venous blood pressure
The specific gravity of transudate is________?
A. Below 1.0.10
B. Below 1.012
C. Between 1.012 and 1.020
D. Above 1.020
In acute inflammation, immediate transient permeability in cells is increased by__________?
A. Direct injury & necrosis
B. Endothelial Gaps by histamine
C. Leucocyte mediated endothelial injury
D. Increased tissue oncotic pressure
Ghon focus is associated with _______?
A. Gonorrhea
B. Syphilis
C. AIDS
D. Tuberculosis
Ghon complex of the lung usually______?
A. Undergoes cavitation
B. Undergoes calcification
C. Progresses to tuberculous pneumonia
D. Progresses to military tuberculosis
The following chemical mediator is a product of arachidonic acid metabolite by cyclo oxygenase pathway____________?
A. LxA4
B. LxB4
C. 5-HETE
D. PGH2
The process of phagocytosis was discovered by____?
A. Celsus
B. Elie Metchnikoff
C. Virchow
D. None of the above
Function of hepatic kupffer cells is______?
A. Formation of sinusoids
B. Vitamin-A storage
C. Increases blood perfusion
D. Phagocytosis
Lepra cells seen in leprosy are_______?
A. Lymphocytes
B. Plasma cells
C. Vacuolated Histocytes
D. Neutrophils
Serum sickness syndrome is_____________?
A. A transplant immunity
B. An anaphylactic shock
C. Systemic arthus reaction
D. None of the above
Enzymes responsible for suppuration are derived chiefly from______?
A. PMN’s
B. Lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Eosinophils
Which of the bacteria resembles fungus_____?
A. Mycobacterium leprae
B. Actinomyces israeli
C. Mycobacterium bovis
D. All of the above
Kviem’s test is diagnostic test for_______?
A. Actinomycosis
B. Diphtheria
C. Tuberculosis
D. Sarcoidosis
Inflammation is characterized by________________?
A. Transudation -> exudation -> oedena
B. Oedema -> exudation
C. Exudation -> transudation -> oedema
D. Only by exudation -> oedema
Example of ganulomatous inflammation_______?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Leprosy
C. Tuberculosis
D. All of the above
Highly infection stage of syphilis_______?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tetriary
D. Congenital
Lymphocytosis is seen in_____?
A. Fungal infections
B. Viral infections
C. Bacterial infections
D. Protozoal infections
The predominant cells after 48 hours of inflammation are______?
A. Monocytes
B. Macrophage
C. Neutrophils
D. A and B
In granuloma, epithelial and giant cells are derived from_______?
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. Plasma cells
D. Monocyte
All of the following about prostaglandins and leukotriene are correct except_______?
A. Arachidonic acid is metabolized to form prostaglandins and leukotrienes
B. COX-1 is inducible in many tissues
C. COX is induced by cytokines at the site of inflammation
D. Leukotrienes cause bronchoconstriction
Caseating granuloma is commonly seen in______?
A. Viral infections
B. Tuberculosis
C. Tyhoid
D. Amoebiasis
Lepra cells are seen in abundance in_______?
A. Tuberculoid leprosy
B. Lepromatous leprosy
C. Histoid leprosy
D. Intermediate leprosy
The process by which red blood cell move out of vessels through widened inter endothelial junction is referred as______?
A. Pavementing
B. Diapedesis
C. Rouleax formation
D. Chemotaxis migration
Ag-Ab (antigen-antibody) reaction due to the presence of antibody at the surface of cell is_______?
A. Type I hyp
B. Type II hyp
C. Type III hyp
D. Type IV hyp
The host tissue response in acute inflammation is all except_______?
A. Exudative
B. Necrotizing
C. Granulomatous
D. Cytopathic
Edema occurs due to______?
A. Increased capilary permeability
B. Decreased capilary permeability
C. Decreased interstitial fluid
D. Decreased blood flow
Prostaglandins are synthesized from_______?
A. RNA template
B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
C. Polyunsaturated fatty acids
D. None of the above
Granuloma is characterized by all of the following except_______?
A. A specific type of chronic inflammation
B. Accumulation of modified macrophages
C. Initiated by a number of infectious and non infectious agents
D. A reaction of acute inflammation
Difference in transudate & exudate is that the former has a______?
A. Low protein
B. Cloudy appearance
C. Increased specific gravity
D. High protein
Component of tubercle bacilli which produce granuloma is______?
A. Surface glycolipids
B. Sulfatide
C. Hetero polysaccharide
D. Sulfadase
Some micro organisms produce a diffuse spreading inflammatory reaction due to the elaboration of_____?
A. Coagulase
B. Peroxidase
C. Bradykinin
D. Hyaluronidase
Epitheloid cells are seen in all of the following except_______?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Granulation tissue
C. Syphilis
D. Sarcoidosis
The first even in primary wound healing__________?
A. Epithelial changes
B. Organization
C. Formation of blood cloth
D. Acute inflammatory response
Factors influencing wound healing are the following________?
A. Nutrition
B. Adequate blood supply
C. Size and location of wound
D. All of the above
Pathology MCQs for Preparation of M-Cadet
Essential granulation tissue constituents include all except_______?
A. Fibroblast
B. Macrophages
C. Polymorphs
D. Budding blood vessels
All of the following promotes wound healing except_________?
A. Protein
B. Steroids
C. Vitamin C
D. Adequate oxygen supply
Regeneration by sprouting of axons takes place in which end of transaction of nerve_______?
A. Proximal end
B. Distal end
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Bony union taking place with formation of medullary callus without periosteal callus formation is_______?
A. Primary union
B. Secondary union
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Factors inhibiting wound healing______?
A. Infection
B. Cortisol
C. Foreign Bodies
D. All of the above
The persistence of epithelial cells after wound healing give rise to_______?
A. Implantation cyst
B. Keloid
C. Wound dehiscence
D. Cicatrisation
Large open wounds that are characterized by tissue loss and repaired by formation of granulation tissue in the floor of the wound is characteristic of_______?
A. Secondary healing
B. Primary healing
C. Cicatrisation
D. Regeneration
Granulation tissue contains_____?
A. Giant cells
B. Fibroblasts
C. Endothelial cells
D. B & C
The cells which have the capacity to multiply through out their life______?
A. Stable cells
B. Permanent cells
C. Labile cells
D. None of the above
Important components of collagen synthesis, wound strength and contraction include all of the following EXCEPT ?
A. Fibroblasts
B. Myofibroblasts
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
All cells do not divide at the same rate. Events in which phase of the cell cycle determine when a cell is going to replicate ?
A. M phase
B. G1 phase
C. S phase
D. G2 phase
Correct sequence of cell cycle ?
A. Go – G1 – S – G2 – M
B. Go – G1 – G2 – S – M
C. Go – M – G2 – S – G1
D. Go – G1 – S – M – G2
Peripheral nerve regenerates at the rate of ________ mm per day?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 0.5
D. 5
All are desirable in the union of the fracture site except______?
A. Formation of fibrous joint or pseudoarthrosis
B. Remodeling of bone
C. Formation of blood clot
D. Formation of procallus or osseous cells
Incomplete fractures of the bone are called___________?
A. Comminuted fracture
B. Compound fracture
C. Simple fracture
D. Green stick fracture
The factor which gives strength in wound healing________?
A. Collagen
B. Blood supply
C. Growth factors
D. Hormones
All of the following events are common to primary and secondary wound healing except_____________?
A. Formation of blood clot
B. Inflammatory response
C. Epithelial changes
D. Wound contraction
Wounds which are clean uninfected and surgically incised, with edge of wounds approxiamated by sutures heal by____________?
A. Primary intention
B. Secondary intention
C. Cicatrisation
D. All of the above
The cells which do not undergo mitotic divisions___________?
A. Smooth muscle cells
B. Endotheilial cells
C. Bone marrow cells
D. Neurons
Which of the following has least capacity for regeneration_______?
A. Cardiac muscle
B. Skeletal muscle
C. Neurons
D. All of the above
Synthesis of DNA occurs in Which phase of cellAcycle_______?
A. Mitosis – M phase
B. Gap – G2 phase
C. Gap – G1 phase
D. Synthesis – S phase
Tumour which shows origin from more than one germ layers is known as_________?
A. Teratoma
B. Plemorphic tumours
C. Choristoma
D. Hamartoma
Immune response to tumour is mediated by_______?
A. Cytotoxic T – lymphocytes
B. Natural killer cells
C. Humoral mechanism
D. All of the above
Tumour arising from secetory and glandular epithelium are_______?
A. Adenomas
B. Adenosarcomas
C. Angiomas
D. Both A and B
Nevus cell are_______________?
A. Modified melanocytes
B. Cells containing excessive melanin pigment
C. Melangocytes which are functionally more active
D. large melanocytes
Anaplasia is________?
A. Lack of functional differentiation
B. Lack of structural differentiation
C. Is a characteristic feature of malignancy
D. All of the above
The predisposing factor for squamous cell carcinoma _________?
A. Solar keratosis
B. Chronic ulcers
C. Leukoplakia
D. All of the above
Rodent ulcer is most commonly seen on_______?
A. Face below alatragus line
B. Face above alatragus line
C. Anywhere on hairless skin
D. All of the above
Most tumours are ________?
A. Biclonal in origin
B. Monoclonal in origin
C. Multiclonal in origin
D. None of the above
Carcinogens induce tumours, they are_______?
A. Chemicals
B. Radiation
C. Viruses
D. All of the above
Increased proliferation of cells is called______?
A. Hypertrophy
B. Atrophy
C. Hyperplasia
D. Metaplasia
Neoplasia of blood vessel is called______?
A. Angioma
B. Hematoma
C. Lymphosarcoma
D. Papilloma
Change in structure and functions of a tissue is called______?
A. Dysplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Anaplasia
D. Aplasia
Which of the following is correct statement ?
A. Grading is the degree of macroscopic and microscopic differentiation of tumour
B. Staging is the extent of spread of tumour
C. TNM and AJC systems can be used for staging malignant tumours
D. All of the above
Sunburst appearance and codmans triangle are seen in______?
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Osteoma
C. Chondrosarcoma
D. None of the above
Cotton wool appearance is seen _______ ?
A. Pagets disease
B. Osteomyelitis
C. Fibrous dysplasia
D. Achondroplasia
The increase in size of uterus during pregnancy is an example of ______?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypertrophy
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
The most characteristic feature of a neoplasm as opposed to inflammatory over growth is______?
A. Abnormal mitosis
B. Size of the lesion
C. Progressive growth after removal of causative stimuli
D. Tendency to grow rapidly
Pathology MCQs with Answers for AFNS
All of the following statements are true regarding reversible cell injury, except_____?
A. Formation of amorphous densities in the mitochondrial matix
B. Diminished generation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
C. Formation of blebs in the plasma membrane
D. Detachment of ribosomes from the granular endoplasmic reticulum
One of the following is not a malignant feature_______?
A. Aplasia
B. Anaplasia
C. Abnormal mitosis
D. Pleomorphism
The most common site of metastases of osteosarcoma is_____?
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Lymph nodes
D. Lung
Somatic mutation of PTEN is seen in________?
A. Retinoblastoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Carcinoma breast
D. Endometrial Carcinoma
All of the following viruses are capable of causing human cancers except_______?
A. papilloma virus
B. Hepatitis B virus
C. Epstein Barr virus
D. Parvovirus B-19
Philadelphia chromosome is consistently found in_______?
A. AML
B. CLL
C. CML
D. All of the above
The cell with increased mitotic rate and resembling the undifferentiated mesenchymal cells of the same origin is____?
A. Anaplastic
B. Dysplastic
C. Metaplastic
D. Hyperplastic
A simple bacterial test for mutagenic carcinogens is_______?
A. Ames test
B. Redox text
C. Bacteriophage
D. Gene splicing
The increase in the size of left kidney following the removal of right kidney (vicarious hypertrophy) is due to______?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypertrophy
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
The lesions of bone which is expansile and eccentrically ballooned out is______?
A. Ossifying fibroma
B. Aneurysmal bone cyst
C. Fibrous dysplasia
D. None of the above
Usually metastatic lesions are osteolytic, but osteoblastic secondaries occur in cancer of_______?
A. Thyroid
B. Prostate
C. Kidney
D. Uterus
Onion skin appearance is seen in______?
A. Ewing’s sarcoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Osteoma
D. Fibro sarcoma
Nuclear cytoplasmic ratio in malignant cells is_______?
A. 1 : 6
B. 1 : 5
C. 1 : 1
D. 6 : 4
In dysplasia mitotic figures are seen in________?
A. In basal layers of epithelium
B. In surface layers only
C. From basal layer to surface
D. None of the above
Malignant tumour of epithelial origin is______?
A. Carcinoma
B. Sarcomas
C. Papilloma
D. All of the above
Pap smear is used to detect dysplasia, carcinoma insitu and invasive carcinoma of uterine cervix. This is based on the principle of_______?
A. Neoplastic cells are cohesive
B. Neoplastic cells are are non cohesive
C. Hyper chromatic and pleomorphism of tumour cells
D. All of the above
Epstein Barr virus is associated with ________?
A. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
B. Burkitts lymphoma
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. All of the above
Malignant tumour of skeletal muscie is______?
A. Rhabdomyoma
B. Rhabdomyosarcoma
C. Leiomyoma
D. Leiomyosarcoma
Keratin pearls with downward proliferation of epithelial masses is characteristic of_______________?
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Epidermoid carcinoma
D. Melanoma
Basal cell carcinoma occurs on_______?
A. Skin and pilosebaceous adnexa
B. Skin and mucosa
C. Skin, lips and tongue
D. All of the above
The wasting syndrome associated in cancer is_____________?
A. Achalasia
B. Cacchexia
C. Atelexis
D. Cacoguesia
Oncogenic viruses in human are_______?
A. HPV
B. EBV
C. Hepatitis -B virus
D. All of the above
Incidence of most common malignant tumours in women is________?
A. Breast
B. Lung
C. Cervix
D. Ovary
Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with the proliferation of _________?
A. T- cell
B. B – cell
C. Lymph vessels
D. Lymph nodes
The increase in size of individual cells is referred as_______?
A. Hypertrophy
B. Hyperplasia
C. Hypodontia
D. Differentiation
The most definite feature of a malignant tumour is_______?
A. Haemorrhage
B. Increased mitoses
C. Metastasis
D. Necrosis
Exfoliative cytology is indicated in______?
A. Heavily keratinized lesions of oral cavity
B. Pro-cancerous lesions of oral cavity
C. Cigarette smokers
D. Mass screening of cervical cancer
Malignant neoplasms shows all the following features EXCEPT______?
A. Disorganized cell structure
B. Encapulation
C. Invasion of blood vessels
D. Rapid, erratic growth
Thrombosis due to hypercoagulability is seen in______?
A. Women talking oral contraceptives
B. Severe trauma or burns
C. Cardiac failure
D. All of the above
In left ventricular cardiac failure there is______?
A. Passive Congestion in lungs
B. Passive congestion in liver
C. Active hyperemia in lungs
D. None of the above
Gamma gandy bodies are seen in_______?
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Kidney
D. Lung
Which of the following being is the most frequent site of thrombus ?
A. Veins of lower extremities
B. Portal vein
C. Pulmonary vein
D. Hepatic vein
The commonest site of thrombosis is_______?
A. Arteries
B. Veins
C. Capilaries
D. Heart
The type of embolism seen in fractures of long bones______?
A. Thrombo embolism
B. Air embolism
C. Fat embolism
D. Amniotic fluid embolism
In hemorrhager lost plasma is replaced by______?
A. Bone marrow
B. Kidney
C. Spleen
D. Muscle
Heart failure cells are seen in______?
A. Heart
B. Lungs
C. Liver
D. Kidney
Following is the most important factor in the management of shock_______?
A. Blood pressure
B. Cardiac output
C. CVP to 8 cm of water
D. Deficiency of effective circulating blood volume
Shock is a circulatory disturbance characterized by_____?
A. Increased blood pressure
B. Decreased volume of circulation blood
C. Elevated body temperature
D. Decreased volume of interstitial fluid
Which of the following is common in all forms of shock ?
A. Sepsis
B. Hypovolemia
C. Vasoconstriction
D. Impaired tissue prefusion
Multiple Choice questions in Pathology
Anasarca means_____?
A. Abnormal inflammatory process
B. Severe generalized swelling
C. Absence of proliferation of vessels following inflammation
D. Presence of pus
The most common site of origin for venous thrombi leading to pulmonary embolism is_______?
A. Ascending oaorta
B. Portal vein
C. Deep leg veins
D. Right atrium
Which of the following is correctly matched with the forms of extravasation hemorrhages_______?
A. Ecchymosis – large extravasation of blood in to the skin and mucous membrane
B. Purpura – small areas (1cm) of hemorrhage in to the skin and mucous membrane
C. petechiae – small pin point hemorrhages
D. All of the above
The process of formation of solid mass in circulation from the constituents of normal flowing blood is called_______?
A. Clot formation
B. Thrombosis
C. Embolism
D. Infarction
Major and frequent influence for thrombus formation is_______?
A. Alteration in blood flow
B. Hypercoagulability
C. Endothelial damage
D. Fatty streak
Left side heart failure results in_____?
A. Oedema of lungs
B. Oedema of spleen
C. Oedema of legs
D. Oedema of liver
The common cause of sudden death in myocardial infarction is______?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Arrhythmias
C. Congestive heart failure
D. None of the above
Three days after the onset of myocardial infarction, which enzyme level has the best predictive value________?
A. Serum CPK
B. Serum LDH
C. Serum SGOT
D. Serum SGPT
Pale infarcts are seen in all of the following except_______?
A. Lung
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. Spleen
Earliest lesion in atherosclerosis is_______?
A. Atheroma
B. Fatty streak
C. Fibrous plaque
D. None of the above
Which of the following symptomatic atheroscierotic disease is correct_______?
A. Aorta – Aneurysm, thromboembolism
B. Heart – MI, Ischemic heart disease
C. Lower extremities – claudication gangrene
D. All of the above
In which one of the following organs the venous emboli are most often iodged ?
A. Lungs
B. Kidneys
C. Intestines
D. Heart
The infarct of the following organs is invariably haemorrhagic_____________?
A. Kidney
B. Lung
C. Spleen
D. Heart
Venous emboli are most often lodged in________?
A. Intestines
B. Lungs
C. Kidneys
D. Heart
Infarcts are not common in_______?
A. Liver
B. Lung
C. Kidney
D. Both A and B
The necrotic tissue and deposits of immune complexes, complement and plasma protein produce a smudy eosinophilic deposit is termed as________?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Fibrinoid necrosis
C. Caesous necrosis
D. Fatty necrosis
White infarcts occurs in one of the following organs______?
A. Ovary
B. Lung
C. Intestine
D. Heart
Risk factor for atherosclerosis_______?
A. Smoking
B. Hypertension
C. Diabetes
D. All of the above
Major site of atheroscierosis________?
A. Coronary artery
B. Abdominal aorta
C. Thoracic aorta
D. Internal carotid artery
Both Pala or red infarcts are seen in______?
A. Lung
B. Brain
C. Kidney
D. Spleen
After myocardial infarction all of the following enzyme levels are high except______?
A. Serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT)
B. Lactic Dehydrogenase (LDH)
C. Creatine phospho kinase (CPK)
D. Serum ornithine carbamyl transferase (SOCT)
The most reliable post mortem features of left sided cardiac failure is_______?
A. Systemic venous congestion
B. Oedematous ankles
C. Chronic venous congestion of lungs
D. Enlargement of spleen and liver
Ascites seen in alcoholic liver cirrhosis result form_______?
A. Decreased protein production by liver
B. Due to increased portal hypertension
C. Due to obstruction of bile duct
D. All of the above
The major factors predisposing to thrombogenesis include all of the following except________?
A. Endothelial injury
B. Hyper coagulability of blood
C. Altered blood flow
D. Pattern of blood flow
All of the following differs antemortum thrombus from a postmortem intravascular costs except_______?
A. Chicken fat appearance
B. Lines of zahn
C. Dry and friable
D. Firm adherence to endothelium where as absent in postmorten clots
Which of the following is not an indicative of hemorrhage______?
A. Ecchymosis
B. Malena
C. Melanosis
D. Petechiae
Extravasation of blood in to the tissues with resulting swelling is called_______?
A. Hemothorax
B. Heamoperitonium
C. Heamopericardium
D. Hematoma
Which of the following predisposes to thrombogenesis ?
A. Endothelial injury
B. Stasis of blood
C. Turbulence of blood
D. All of the above
Active hypermia is seen in______?
A. Muscles during exercise
B. Inflammation
C. Blushing
D. All of the Above
An infarct is most frequently is characterized by What type of necrosis ?
A. Fatty
B. Caseous
C. Gangrenous
D. Coagulative
Partial or complete obstruction of some part of the C.V.S by a foreign body transported by the blood stream is termed as_____?
A. Thrombosis
B. Coagulation
C. Ischaemia
D. Embolism
Caissons disease is caused by_______?
A. Amniotic fluid embolism
B. Hyper coagulability
C. Air or gas embolism
D. Tumour embolism
In a thrombus, the dark lines of zahn are due to_______?
A. Coagulated fibrin
B. Aggregated proteins
C. Aggregated platelets
D. Aggregated R.B.C
Nut meg liver occurs in______?
A. Jaundice
B. Chronic venous congestion
C. Cirrhosis
D. Hepatocellular carcinoma
Heart failure cells are_______?
A. Fibrocytes in myocardium
B. Aschoji’s giant cells
C. Heamosiderin laden macrophages in alveoli
D. Hypertrophic myocardial fibres
Hypovolemic shock develops after loss of_______?
A. 10% blood
B. 20% blood
C. 30% blood
D. 40% blood
In hypovolemic shock________?
A. The central venous pressure ins high
B. The extremities are pale, cold and sweating
C. There is always s site of bleeding
D. Urine output is unaffected
All of the following are typically associated with loss of 40% of the circulating blood volume except_______?
A. A decrease in the blood pressure
B. A decrease in the central venous pressure
C. A decrease in the heart rate
D. A decrease in the urine output
MCQs in Pathology for Medical Tests of Captain & Major
Edema is due to_______?
A. Increased albumin in blood and decreased globin
B. Decreased albumin conc. in blood
C. Increased osmotic pressure
D. None of the above
A 20 year male complains of recurrent attacks of sore throat since 2 years. The total leukocyte count was 1000/ul. A differential count revealed severe neutropenia. The diagnosis is_______?
A. Subleukemic leukemia
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. Agraulocytosis
D. Leukoerythroblastic anemia
Thrombocytopenia due to increased platelet destruction is seen in_________?
A. Aplasti anemia
B. Cancer chemotherapy
C. Acute leukemia
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
Primary hemostasis is disturbed in_____?
A. Platelet disorder
B. Lupus anticoagulant
C. Hemophilia
D. Liver disease
A 3-year old child presented with progressive anaemia, jaundice & failure to thrive. O/E: pallor, splenomegaly are seen Peripheral smear showed normoblasts and small round intensely stained red cells. The likely diagnosis is________?
A. Here ditary spherocytosis
B. Thalassaemia
C. Sickle cell anaemia
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency anaemia
Increased levels of haemoglobin A2 is characteristic of_______?
A. Sickle cell trait
B. b-thalassaemia crait
C. Glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
D. a-Thalassamia
In sickle cell anaemia there is_______?
A. 75 to 100% haemoglobins
B. 10 to 20% haemoglobins
C. 20 to 30% haemoglobins
D. 50 to 60% haemoglobins
The fading of cellular chromatin is______?
A. Karyolysis
B. Karyorrhexis
C. Pyknosis
D. Cytolysis
Auto immune hymolytic anemia is seen in_____?
A. AML
B. CML
C. CLL
D. ALL
A patient’s urine with a particular protein appears normal, but on standing it becomes dark. The dark colour disappears on heating. The patent is suffering from______?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Infectious mononcleosis
D. T – cell tumour
Hodgkin’s lymphoma can be distinguished from non – Hodgkin’s lymphomas by_______?
A. Reed – Sternberg cells
B. Systemic manifestations
C. Occurence in young adults
D. All of the above
The characteristic finding in chronic myeloid leukemia is_______?
A. Reduced score of alkaline phosphatase in granulocytes
B. Reduced score of acid phosphatase in granulocytes
C. Total lack of platelets
D. Total lack of neutrophils
Sickle cell anemia precipitates when____?
A. Oxygen tension goes down
B. Increased viscosity of blood
C. There is dehydration
D. All of the above
Neurologic abnormalities occur with______?
A. Foliate deficiency anemia
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
D. Both B and C
Deposition of bile pigment in the basal ganglia is called________?
A. jaundice
B. Kernicterus
C. Haemosiderosis
D. All of the above
A shift to left indicates an increase in number of______?
A. immature neutrophils
B. erythrocytes
C. matures neutrophils
D. Platelets
Increased bleeding time is seen in all except______?
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Von Willebrand disease
C. Hemophilia
D. Ehlers danlos syndrome
The following are recognized causes of neutropenia Except_______?
A. Corticosteroid therapy
B. Typhoid fever
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Viral infection
Prothrombin time indicates the integrity of ________?
A. Intrinsic pathway
B. Extrinsic pathway
C. Capillary function
D. All of the above
Increased iron binding capacity and decreased serum iron is seen in which anemia________?
A. Iron deficiency
B. Aplastic
C. Sickle cell
D. Chronic infections
Which of the following is a nutritional deficiency anemia_______?
A. aplastic anemia
B. sickle cell anemia
C. megaloblastic anemia
D. hemolytic anemia
IN fanconi anemia there is a_______?
A. Deficiency of copper
B. Mutation of DNA repair gene
C. No increased risk of Sq. cell carcinoma
D. Purely nutritional disorder etiology
Hemophilia A is caused due to deficiency of_______?
A. Factor X
B. Factor XI
C. Factor IX
D. Factor VIII
Sideroblastic anemia is caused due to_______?
A. Mercury
B. Lead
C. Arsenic
D. Iron
Which of the following is not an example of massive splenomegaly ________?
A. Chronic myeloid leukemia
B. Chronic malaria
C. Tropical splenomegaly
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
Target cells are seen in peripheral blood in________?
A. Thalassemia
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Sickle cell anemia
Schilling test is performed to find out_______?
A. Folic acid level
B. B12 malabsroption
C. Pancreatic enzyme deficiency
D. Coronary artery disease
Hemophilics show_______?
A. Increased bleeding time and clotting time
B. Decreased bleeding time and clotting time
C. Decreased bleeding time and increased clotting time
D. Normal bleeding time and increased clotting time
Reed – Sternberg cells are seen in histopathological examination of________?
A. African jaw lymphoma
B. Hodgkin’s disease
C. Burkitt’s lymphoma
D. Infectious mononucleosis
Gingiva are enlarged in leukemia because of_________?
A. Hemophilia
B. Hemolytic anaemia
C. Aplastic anaemia
D. Megaloblastic anemia
A patient with a bleeding disorder with increased bleeding time and normal clotting time is suffering from______?
A. Classic hemophilia
B. Christmas disease
C. Vitamin K deficiency
D. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
The protein that carries iron from the gut to the body tissues is called_______?
A. Ferritin
B. Haemosiderin
C. Myoglobin
D. Transferrin
A 14 year old boy complains with gingival bleeding oral ulcers, anaemia with hepatomegaly but no lymphadenopathy, total eukocyte count of one-lakh cells per mm3 is suffering from__________?
A. Acute myeloid leukemia
B. Chronic monocytic leukemia
C. Chronic lymphoblastic leukemia
D. Chronic myeloid leukemia
Which of the following is not true for hemophilia A _______?
A. Hemophilia A is due to deficiency of factor VIII
B. In hemophilia A females are carriers
C. Desmopressin is useful in the management of hemophilia A
D. Levels of factor VIII less than 50% are associated with spontaneous hemorrhage
Normal adult haemoglobin contains______?
A. One alpha chain and one beta chain
B. One alpha chains and two beta chains
C. One beta chains and two alpha chains
D. Two alpha chains and two beta chains
Reduced number of platelet is found in all the conditions except________?
A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
B. Aplastic anaemia
C. Acute myelocytic leukemia
D. Von willebrand disease
Chicken-wire appearance of enlarged bone marrow spaces is seen in______?
A. Fetal alcohol syndrome
B. Sickle cell anaemia
C. Haemophilia A
D. Beta thalassemia majon
Syndrome associated with increased risk of leukemia is_____?
A. Plummer Vinson syndrome
B. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Sturge weber syndrome
D. Multiple hamartoma syndrome
Must See below:
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Past Multiple Choice Questions of Medical Cadet for Pathology
Cooley’s anemia is also called______?
A. Mediterranean anemia
B. Beta – Thalassemia major
C. Erythroblastic anema
D. All of the above
In Troisiers sign the lymph nodes involved are_______?
A. Right axillary nodes
B. Left axillary nodes
C. Right supraclavicular nodes
D. Left supraclavicular nodes
Thrombocytosis is seen in_____?
A. Osteopetrosis
B. DIsseminated intravascular coagulation
C. Haemolytic anaemia
D. Thiazide therapy
The type of acute myelogenous leukemia associated with a high incidence of disseminated intravascular coagulation in______?
A. Acute erythroleukaemia
B. Acute promyelocytic leukaemia
C. Acute megakaryocytic leukaemia
D. Acute myelomonocytic leukaemia
Lymphatic leukemoid reaction is usually seen in the following EXCEPT______?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Pertussis
C. Lobar pneumonia
D. Viral infections
Amyloid material can be best diagnosed by________?
A. Polarized microscopy
B. Electron microscopy
C. X-ray crytallography
D. Scanning electron miscroscopy
Osteomalacia is associated with__________?
A. Decrease in osteoid volume
B. Decrease in osteoid surface
C. Increase in osteoid maturation time
D. Increase in mineral apposition rate
All of the following causes excessive bleeding during tooth extraction except _____?
A. Haemophilia – A
B. Haemophilia – B
C. Anti thrombin – III deficiency
D. Von-willebrand disease
All of the following can be transmitted through blood tranfusion except _____?
A. Malaria
B. Leukemia
C. Hepatitis
D. AIDS
Erythroblastosis fetalis is a condition seen when there is________?
A. Rh -ve mother and Rh -ve foetus
B. Rh -ve mother and Rh +ve foetus
C. Rh +ve mother and Rh -ve foetus
D. Rh +ve mother and Rh +ve foetus
Aplastic anemia results from_______?
A. Cytotoxic drugs
B. Whole body irradiation
C. HIV infection
D. All of the above
Intrinsic factor for absorption of Vit B12 secreted in ______?
A. Duodenum
B. Stomach
C. Intestine
D. Ileum
Pallor, spoon shaped nails, atrophic glossitis, with accompanied dysphagia is typical picture of ________?
A. Plummer – Vinson syndrome
B. Trotters syndrome
C. Vincent stomatitis
D. None of the above
Increase in number of RBC is seen in ____?
A. Neutropenia
B. Leukemia
C. Polycythemia
D. Anaemia
Hemophilia is best treated by _______?
A. dried freeze plasma
B. factor VIII concentrate
C. Whole blood
D. cryoprecipitate
Torniquet test is function of_________?
A. Platelet function
B. capillary fragility
C. Intrinsic pathway
D. Extrinic pathway
Reliable screening test for hemophilia is________?
A. APTT
B. BT
C. PT
D. CBP
Normocytic, Normochromic anemia is seen in_________?
A. Hemolytic anemia
B. chronic disease
C. Acute blood loss
D. All of the above
Which of the following is a hemolytic anemia________?
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Thalassemia
C. Hereditary spherocytosis
D. All of the above
Bence jones proteins are associated with_________?
A. Hodgkin’s lymphom
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Burkitt’s lymphoma
D. Infectious mononucleosis
In megaloblastic anaemia the cells are_______?
A. Macrocytic hyperchromic
B. Macrocytic hypochromic
C. Macrocytic normochromic
D. None of the above
In Hodgkin’s disease the lymphoa cells seen are_________?
A. Eosinophilis
B. Plasma cells
C. Reed-sternberg cells
D. Giant cells
Which of the following is commonly involved in multiple myeloma______?
A. Clavicle
B. Vertebrae
C. Pelvis
D. Lungs
Hyper segmented neutrophils are seen in________?
A. Megaloblastic anemia
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Thalassemia
D. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Christmas disease is due to deficiency of______?
A. Factor IX
B. Factor X
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor V
Both beta chains of haemoglobin are abnormal in______?
A. Heterozygous sickle cell trait
B. Thalassemia major
C. Homozygous sickle cell anemia
D. Megaloblastic anemia
In iron deficiency anemia there is_______?
A. Decrease in hemoglobin
B. Increase in hemoglobin
C. Increase in palatelets
D. Decrease in platelets
Hemophilia_____?
A. Affects males and females equally
B. Increased clotting time in all patients
C. Nerve blocks can be given safely
D. Is a congenital disorder
In leucopenia, which cell type is predominantly involved ?
A. Erythrocytes
B. Granulocytes
C. Eosinophils
D. Monocytes
Gingiva are enlarged in leukemia because of_______?
A. Capillary dilation
B. Erythrocyte engorgement
C. Edema
D. WBC infiltration
A patient reports with dyspnoea on slight exertion. He also has multiple petechial spots and spontaneous hemorrhage. His RBC count is less than one lakh/mm3 His hematocrit and hemoglobin is low. Most probable diagnosis is________?
A. Pernicious anemia
B. Thalassemia
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Sprue
Pernicious anaemia is associated with the deficiency of_______?
A. Folic acid
B. Vitamin B1
C. Vitamin B6
D. Vitamin B12
In sickle cell anemia there is substitution of_______?
A. Valine for glutamic acid at the sixth position of beta chain
B. Phenylalanine for glutamic acid
C. Tyrosine for valine at the 6th position at beta chain
D. All of the above
In hemephilic patient which of the following should not be given______?
A. Factor VIII concentrate
B. Cryoprecipitate
C. EACA
D. Platelet factor
A reduction in the total leucocyte count is called_________?
A. Leucocytosis
B. Leucopenia
C. Leucorrhoea
D. Leukemia
The dominant histologic feature of infarction is_______?
A. Liquefactive necrosis
B. Coagulative necrosis
C. Chronic inflammation
D. Scar tissue
Secondary amylodosis is seen most commonly in_______________?
A. Actinomycosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Rabies
D. Secondary Iues
Apoptosis is suggestive of_________?
A. Liquefaction degeneration
B. Coagulative necrosis
C. Neo angiogenesis
D. Epithelial dysplasia
Caseation necrosis is suggestive of_______?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Leprosy
D. Midline lethal granuloma
Synthesis of DNA occurs in which phase ____________________?
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. M
True statement about primary amyloidosis _______?
A. It is more common in heart, skin and skeletal tissue
B. In 70% of cases don’t have any associated disease
C. In 50% of cases have some form of plasma cell dyscrasias such as multiple myeloma
D. All of the above
Maltory’s degeneration seen in alcoholic liver disease is a form of_________?
A. Hyaline degeneartion
B. Amyloid degeneration
C. Hydropic degeneration
D. Fatty degeneration
Pyknosis is characterized by_________?
A. Nuclear basophilia
B. Nuclear shrinkage
C. Nucleus disintegration
D. Nucleolus disintegration
Cellular swelling and fatty change are example of______?
A. Reversible injury
B. Irreversible injury
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Metastatic calcifications are seen in______________?
A. Hypoparathyroidism
B. Vitamin D deficiency
C. Hypercalcemia
D. All of the above
Physiologic programmed cell death is termed as_______?
A. Apoptosis
B. Lysis
C. Autolysis
D. Autopsy
Liquefation necrosis is commonly seen in_______?
A. Brain
B. Lung
C. Liver
D. Spleen
Dytrophic calcification are calcifications seen in________?
A. Skin layers
B. Salivary glands
C. Normal tissues
D. Dead tissue
The protein found in the amyloid deposits in senile systemic amyloidosis is_______?
A. AL protein
B. a2 microglobulin
C. a-amyloid protein
D. Transthyretin
Which of the following is NOT true of dystrophic calcification ?
A. Occurs in damaged tissue
B. Tuberculous lesions
C. Atherosclerotic lesions
D. Serum calcium levels are high
The activation of caspases is likely to lead to________?
A. Apoptotic cell death
B. Blood coagulation
C. Mitotic cell division
D. G1 to S phase of cell cycle
Tigered effect of heart is seen in________?
A. Fatty change
B. Hyaline change
C. Amy
D. Atrophy
Hydrolytic degeneration is characterised by________?
A. Caseation
B. Coagulation
C. Liquefaction
D. Fibrinoid
Severe generalized edema is called as_________?
A. Myxoedema
B. Pitting edema
C. Anasarca
D. Dependent edema
Apoptosis is___________?
A. Single cell necrosis
B. Intracytoplasmic accumulation
C. Degenerative change
D. Neoplastic change in the cell
Amyloidosis most commonly occurs in______?
A. Kidney
B. Spleen
C. Liver
D. Heart
Primary amyloidosis occurs in _________?
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Tuberculosis
C. Hodgkin’s diseaes
D. Chronic osteomyelitis
The hormone dependent shedding of endometrium is an example of________?
A. Necrosis
B. Autolysis
C. Apoptosis
D. None of the above
Hypoxic death leads to__________________?
A. Liquefactive necrosis
B. Coagulative nacrosis
C. Caseous necrosis
D. Fat necrosis
Which of the following is correctly matched________?
A. Coagulation necrosis Tuberculosis
B. Caseation yellow fever
C. Fat necrosis Pancreatitis
D. Gumma infarction
Amyloidosis is commonly associated with_____?
A. Chronic osteomyelitis
B. Periostitis
C. Acute osteomyelitis
D. Multiple myeloma
Stain used for demonstration of amyloid is______?
A. Congo Red
B. Masson’s toichrome
C. Vonkosa
D. Reticulin
Diabetic gangrene is caused by_____?
A. Vasospasm
B. Peripheral neuritis
C. Atheroslerosis
D. None of the above
Coagulative necrosis is______?
A. Characteristic of focal bacterial infections
B. Characteristic of hypoxic death
C. Characteristic by loss of tissue architecture
D. None of the above
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| 3. | Pakistan Air Force Information & Selection Centers | Click Here |
