Microbiology MCQs

Every individual who has degree of MBBS and seeking jobs in Pakistan Defence Forces like Pak Army, Pak Navy or PAF then there is great opportunity to Join Pak Army as a Captain or Major. 

Such candidates must be aware about all those questions which they face into the initial tests like Microbiology MCQs. Microbiology MCQs are available here particularly which help in bringing success 100%.

Those candidates who are interested to appear in the Short Services Regular Commission in Pak Army, they must learn all necessary Microbiology MCQs because these are often asked in the past papers of Short Service Regular Commission. Microbiology MCQs are also given in PDF for better learning of the students.

Microbiology MCQs related to amoeba, protozoa, viruses, are bacteria are often repeated in the academic tests of AFNS, Army Medical College admissions and also in all types of Nursing Jobs. In the following, Microbiology MCQs are given with answers which help students in the initial tests as well as in interview. 

Moreover, Microbiology MCQs help in many online tests, quizzes, viva voce, certifications, competitive examinations like PPSC, FPSC, CSS, etc.

Click Here: Free Download Microbiology MCQs in PDF

See also: How to Solve Intelligence Tests?

Must see below: 

1.     Pakistan Army Ranks and SalaryClick Here
2.     Pakistan Navy Ranks & SalaryClick Here
3.     Pakistan Air Force Ranks & Salary Click Here

Microbiology MCQ With Answers Keys. Free Download

In the following, Microbiology MCQs are given with answers which can be free downloaded and may be converted into PDF for any medical tests examination.

A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates______?

A. Acute infection
B. Carrier state
C. Prodromal phase
D. Convalescence

Cytopathic effect is shown by_______?

A. Virus
B. Bacteria
C. Spirochete
D. Anaerobe

Which of the following would you consider to be general properties of viruses________?

A. New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses
B. Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
C. Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids
D. Contain DNA but no RNA

Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_______?

A. Cryptococcosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Candidiasis
D. Aspergilosis

Viruses can be cultured in all except______?

A. Chick embryo
B. Blood agar
C. Guinea pigs
D. Cell culture

Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____?

A. 1 week
B. 6 week
C. 3 months
D. 6 months

The Window period in HIV infection means_____?

A. The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
B. The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS
C. The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab
D. None of the above

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affects_______?

A. Red blood cells
B. Fibroblasts
C. Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
D. Mast cells

The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is______?

A. Apthous stomatitis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
D. Herpetic gingivostomatitis

Influenza is caused by______?

A. Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
B. Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
C. Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
D. Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus

Human immune deficiency virus is ____ virus?

A. Rheo
B. Retro
C. Rhabdo
D. Flavi

Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in which of the following viruses______?

A. Pox virus
B. Measles virus
C. Hepatitis B virus

In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started______?

A. Rabies
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Influenza
D. Herpes

Incubation period of herpes zoster is______?

A. 7-14 days
B. 1 months
C. 1-2 years
D. 3-6 months

True about prions________?

A. Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
B. Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
C. Viruses which are genetically deficient
D. Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective

Pigs are important source of_____?

A. Japanese encephalitis
B. Kuru
C. Yellow fever
D. Rabies

Herpes virus_______?

A. Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
B. Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane
C. Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane
D. None of the above

The presence of Which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility ?

A. Enzymes
B. Protein coat
C. Polysaccharide
D. Lipids

Certain viruses have been isolated in crystalline form and have been found to be_____?

A. Nucleotides
B. Phospholipids
C. Scleroproteins
D. Nucleoproteins

The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by which of the following_______?

A. Boiling
B. Ethanol
C. Cidex
D. All of the above

Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly______?

A. Gastrointestinal tract
B. Nasal mucosa
C. Lung
D. Skin

Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates______?

A. Simple carriers
B. Late convalescence
C. High infectivity
D. Carrier status

Which does not have a viral etiology_____?

A. Carcinoma Cervix
B. Hepatoma
C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
D. Lymphoma

Viron is defined as_______?

A. Extracellular infectious virus particle
B. Smallest virus
C. A smallest particle similar to virus
D. None of the above

One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is_____?

A. Viral interference
B. Mutation
C. Supervision
D. Permutation

The only virus, which has double stranded RNA, is_____?

A. Bunya virus
B. Reo virus
C. Calci virus
D. Rhabdo virus

Which of the following correctly indicates the infectivity of hepatitis virus in human ?

B. HBeAg
C. Anti-HBC
D. Anti-HBS

Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus infection during window period ?

A. HBs Ag
B. IgM anti – HBc
C. Anti HBs
D. None of the above

For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except______?

A. Give immunoglobulins for passive immunity
B. Give ARV
C. Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
D. Immediately wash wound with soap and water

Which of the following is a RNA virus ?

A. Measles virus
B. Herpes Virus
C. Papavo virus
D. Adeno virus

Following is a retrovirus_______?

A. Immunodeficiency virus
B. Influenza
C. Polio virus
D. Hepatitis virus

Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____?

A. Type 6,12,18
B. 16,18,31
C. 6,8,11
D. 3,10,19

The viral action is differentiated from bacterial action by______?

A. Interferon production
B. Toxin production
C. Lymphocytes production
D. Neutrophils production

What is the sequence which a retro virus follows on entering a host cell ?


Which of the following viruses appears to be involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi’s sarcoma_____?

A. Human Herpes Virus 3
B. Human Herpes Virus 1
C. Human Herpes Virus 8
D. Human Herpes Virus 4

Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in______?

A. 2 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 9 weeks
D. 12 weeks

Babu, a 28 year old male comes with complaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by______?

B. Western blot
C. P24 antigen
D. Lymph node biopsy

Anti HBsAB indicates_______?

A. Resistance to hepatitis B
B. Acute infection
C. Good prognosis
D. Hepatocellular carcinoma

Presence of HBe Ag in Patients with hepatitis indicates_______?

A. Simple carriers
B. Late convalescence
C. High infectivity
D. Carrier status

Which of the following does not go into chronic hepatitis stage ?


Which of the following belongs to cell fraction derived vaccine______?

A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Rubella
D. Hepatitis B

Dengue virus belongs to______?

A. Flavi virus
B. Togaviridae
C. Reoviridae
D. Rhabdoviridae

Which of the following statement about P24 antigen of HIV is Not True ?

A. It can be detected during the window period
B. Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:
C. Virus load parallel P24 titre
D. It remains during asymptomatic phase

Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause feudal defect ?

A. Herpes Simplex
B. Mumps
C. Rubella
D. Papilloma

Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies______?

A. Chicken pox
B. Rabies
C. Small pox
D. Measles

Characteristic feature of retrovirus is____?

A. Ribonuclease
B. Reverse transcriptase
C. DNA polymerase
D. Restriction endonuclease

Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by______?

A. Virus
B. Bacteria
C. Parasite
D. Bacteria superadded on virus

Interferon interferes with replication of virus at the time of_______?

A. Protein synthesis
B. DNA/RNA replication
C. When virus enters the cell
D. Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule

Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?

A. Mycobacteria
B. Spore
C. Prions
D. Coccidia

Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus ?

A. Verruca vulgaris
B. Focal epithelial hyperplasia
C. Condyloma acuminatum
D. Keratoacanthoma

Prions true is_____?

A. Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
B. Evokes strong immunogenic reaction
C. Sensitive to most chemical sterilization
D. Contains DNA/ RNA

A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely etiological agent is______?

A. Hepatitis B virus
B. Hepatitis C virus
C. Hepatitis E virus
D. Hepatitis A virus

Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is_____?

A. Sialoperoxidase
B. Secretory IgA
C. Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
D. Histidine rich proteins

A dentist suffred from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is______?

A. Inactive carrier
B. Healthy carrier
C. Convalscent carrier
D. Paradoxical carrier

Virus is cultured in_______?

A. Saubourd’s agar
B. Rogosa medium
C. Nonembryonated egg
D. Embryonated egg

Kaposi’s sarcoma (KS) usually occurs when CD4 Lymphocyte counts are______?

A. Above 600
B. Between 1000-2000
C. Below 200
D. Above 2000

Mark true in following ?

A. Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
B. Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
C. Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
D. None of the above

The world German measles is applied for_____?

A. Rubella
B. Rubeola
C. Herpes simplex
D. Herpetic ginglvostomatitis

Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by_______?

A. IgM antibodies in serum
B. Isolation form stool
C. Culture from blood
D. Isolation from bile

Which of the following is not a pox virus ?

A. Cowpox
B. Molluscum contagiosum
C. Small pox
D. chicken pox

Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by_____?

A. Surface antigen
B. Surface antibody
C. Core antigen
D. Core antibody

ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______?

A. Less sensitive less specific
B. More sensitive, more specific
C. Less sensitive, more specific
D. More sensitive, less specific

The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is______?

A. Adeno
B. Hepatitis
C. EB virus
D. Parvo virus

In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to____?

A. CD8 T-cells
B. CD4 T-cells
C. B – cells
D. NK – cells

The small nonparticulate protein leading to enhanced replication of HBV as well as HIV is______?

A. HBc Ag
B. HBs Ag
C. Hbe Ag
D. HBx Ag

How to prepare tests? See Below: 

1.     How to prepare Verbal Intelligence tests? Click Here
2.     How to prepare Non Verbal Intelligence tests? Click Here
3.     How to prepare Medical tests? Click Here

Microbiology MCQs Quizzes with Answer Key Free

Find here more Microbiology MCQs with answers if you want to give medical entrance tests for any medical admission or nursing jobs. 

Patients with organ transplants are most frequently infected with______?

A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B

EBV is responsible for all except_____?

A. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
B. Burkitt’s lymphoma
C. Hepatoma
D. Infectious mononucleosis

Most common tumor associated with AIDS is________?

A. Carcinoma
B. Kaposi’s sarcoma
C. Melanoma
D. Ewing’s sarcoma

The overall effect of HIV is to gradually impair the immune system by interference with_____?

A. Helper T lymphocytes
B. Natural killer cells
C. Plasma cells
D. Macrophages

Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups ?

A. Picorna viruses
B. Herpes viruses
C. Hepadana viruses
D. Flavi viruses

Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except_______?

A. Tissue culture
B. Embryonated eggs
C. Animals
D. Chemically defined media

During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______?

A. ELISA IS – ve
B. Western Blot is – ve
C. Both are – ve
D. PCR is – ve

Plaque test is used routinely in virology lab’s for______?

A. Identification of viral disease
B. To separate specific clone of virus
C. To maintain certain viral culture
D. To prepare vaccines

All are oncogenic except_______?

A. Anopheles
B. Aedes
C. Culex
D. Mansoni

DNA covering material in a virus is called as_____?

A. Capsomere
B. Capsid
C. Nucleocapsid
D. Envelope

All are oncogenic except_______?

A. EB virus
B. Papilloma virus
C. Herpes simplex virus
D. Varicella zoster virus

True about HIV are all except____?

A. DNA virus
B. Attacks CD4 cells
C. Macrophages are the reservoir
D. Decrease CD4 count in late stages

EBV causes all except_________?

A. Carcinoma of nasopharynx
B. Papilloma
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Burkitt’s lymphoma

Australian antigen is________?

A. HB Ag
D. None of the above

Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?

A. Virus isolation
B. Western blot followed by ELISA
C. ELISA followed by western blot technique
D. Polymers chain reaction

Enterically transmitted NANB hepatitis B______?

A. Hepatitis C
B. Hepatitis D
C. Hepatitis E
D. Hepatitis F

True about immune response of hepatitis B is_______?

A. Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
B. Antibody to HBC is not protective
C. Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
D. CMI disappears soon after recover

The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell – culture is______?

A. Cytopathic changes in culture cells
B. Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
C. Haemagglutination test
D. Haemagglutination inhibition test

The Dane particle is the_______?

B. IgG anti HAV
C. Delta Virus

Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except_______?

A. Failure to thrive
B. Have infections
C. 50% chances to have AIDS
D. All are true

The time gap between appearance of Koplik’s spot and cutaneous rash in measles is_______?

A. 24 Hrs
B. 3-4 days
C. 2 weeks
D. 10 days

Rabies virus______?

A. Cytotropic
B. Dermatotropic
C. Chromophilic
D. Neurotropic

Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_____?

A. Presence of either DNA or RNA
B. Simple structure
C. Complex multiplication
D. All of the above

The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route_______?

A. Hepatitis B virus
B. Hepatitis C virus
C. Hepatitis D virus
D. Hepatitis E virus

Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a______?

B. Immunodot
D. Western Blot

Bacteriophage was discovered by______?

A. Robert koch
B. Twort and d’herelle
C. Menkin
D. Metchinkoff

Australia antigen is associated with_______?

A. Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
C. Chronic leukemia
D. Basal cell carcinoma

Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_______?

A. in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
B. only after one year
C. no antibodies are present in primary HSV
D. antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis

Half-life of free HIV in plasma is_____?

A. 24 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 3 months

The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is______?

A. Chocolate agar
B. Robertoson’s cooked-meat broth
C. Chorio allantoic membrane
D. Sabourad’s agar

All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except_______?

B. Hepatitis C
C. Hepatitis B
D. Hepatitis E

HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except_______?

A. Saliva
B. Needle prick injury
C. Blood transmission
D. Sexual intercourse

The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is ______?

A. exotoxin production
B. lecithinase production
C. hypersensitivity
D. Coagulase production

Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is ____?

A. Penicillium
B. Aspergillus
C. Mucor
D. Rhizopus

The culture media for fungus is_______?

A. Tellurite medium
B. NNN medium
C. Chocolate agar medium
D. Sabourauds medium

The medium of choice for culturing yeast from of dimorphic fungi is_______?

A. Brain – heart infusion
B. Sabouraud’s
C. Sabouraud’s plus antibiotics
D. Any medium incubated at 35-37°C

Dematophytes are fungi infecting______?

A. Subcutaneous tissue
B. Systemic organs
C. Nails, hair and skin
D. Superficial skin and deep tissue

Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except______?

A. Giardia lambia
B. Ascaris lumbriocoides
C. Strongyloides
D. Entamoeba

Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is_______?

A. Indirect hemagglutination
C. Counter immune electroporesis
D. Microscopy

Black water fever is caused by_____?

A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Leishmania donovani
D. Microfilaria

Causative organism of Kalahazar is_____?

A. Plasmodium ovaie
B. Leishman donovani
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Toxoplasma

All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_______?

A. coli
B. nana
A. gingivalis
B. histolytica

All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except______?

A. Cysts are 8 nucleated
B. Cysts are 4 nucleated
C. Trophozoites colonise in the colon
D. The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides

All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_______?

A. Glycogen mass
B. Chromatid bars
C. Eccentric nucleus
D. Refractile nucleus

Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______?

A. Dot
B. Comma
C. Banana
D. Sickle

True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by______?

A. cats
B. Dogs
C. Rats
D. Cow

Which worm is longest_____?

A. T. Solium
B. T. Saginata
C. Hook worm
D. A. Lumbricoides

Thread worm is_____?

A. Enterobius
B. Ancylostoma
C. Ascaris
D. Necator

Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to_____?

A. Hook worm
B. Thread worm
C. Ascaris
D. Guinea worm

Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in_____?

A. Ascariasis
B. Tapeworm
C. Hood worm
D. Ascariasis and tapeworm

Culture media of candida is_______?

A. Methylene blue dextrose agar
B. Saboraud’s medium
C. Pingolevin
D. All of the above

The following is not true of Candida albicans_____?

A. Yeast like fungus
B. Forms Chlamydospores
C. Blastomeres seen in isolates
D. Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them

Opportunistic infection is caused by_______?

A. Penicillium
B. Mucor
C. Aspergillus
D. All of the above

The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_______?

A. Kerison
B. Alopecia areata
C. Pilomatrixoma
D. Tenia incognito

Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by _____?

A. Candida albicans
B. Mucor
C. Cryptococcus
D. Aspergillus

Candidal hyphae can be stained using______?

A. Van Gieson’s stain
B. Periodic acid schiff stain
C. Masson Trichrome stain
D. Toluidine blue stain

Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________?

A. Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
B. Causes meningitis
C. Melanin production related to virulence
D. Basidiomycetes yeast

Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is______?

A. 2:1
B. 1:2
C. 3:1
D. 1:3

Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve______?

A. Caecum and large intestine
B. Duodenum
C. Stomach
D. Jejunum and Ileum

Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection______?

A. Giardia lambella
B. Isopora belli
C. Balantidium coli
D. Taenia solium

Probiotic organism used______?

A. E coli
B. Bifido bacteria
C. Staphylococcus
D. Salmonella

Sleeping sickness is caused by______?

A. House fly
B. Sand fly
C. Tick
D. Reduvid bug

Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by______?

A. M. Kansasii
B. M. ulcerans
C. M. chelonae
D. M. smegmatis

Donovanosis, true is______?

A. Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
B. Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic
C. Penicillin is drug of choice
D. Characterized by painful genital ulcers

CD4 count in normal healthy adult is______?

A. 500
B. 200
C. 1000
D. 300

A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is_____?

A. India ink preparation
B. Methanamine silver stain
C. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
D. Pyte-ferraco stain

Must see below:

1.     Best general knowledge questionsClick Here
2.     Top questions of InterviewClick Here
3.     Frequently asked Questions of InterviewClick Here
4.     Past Questions of Initial TestsClick Here
5.     Best Tips to pass InterviewClick Here

Microbiology MCQs Practice Questions

Microbiology MCQs are given for practice which were collected from the students who have appeared in the past medical examinations like AFNS, SSRC and Nursing examinations. 

Most fungi of medical importance belongs to_____?

A. Zygomycetes
B. Ascomycetes
C. Basidiomycetes
D. Deuteromycetes

A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents_______?

A. Allo
C. Xeno
D. Auto

Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?

A. Adjuvant
B. Proteins
C. Polysaccharides
D. Lipids

In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except______?

A. Hemolysis
B. Malabsorption
C. Spleen sequestration
D. Bone marrow depression

Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?

A. Trench fever
B. Relapsing fever
C. Q fever
D. Epidemic typhus

Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito_______?

A. Sporozoite
B. Gametocyte
C. Merozoite
D. Zygote

Schuffner’s dots are seen in infection due to_____?

A. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Plasmodium vivax
C. Plasmodium malariae
D. Plasmodium ovale

Man is the only reservoir for_______?

A. Salmonella
B. Camphylobacter jejuni
A. histolytica
C. Y. enterocolitica

A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?

A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium malaria
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium ovale

Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is________?

A. Brain
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Lungs

Delhi boil refer to________?

A. Solar Keratosis
B. Malignant pustule
C. L. Tropica sore
D. Venereal ulcer

Madura mycosis produces_____?

A. Brown to black granules
B. White to yellow granules
C. Red granules
D. No granules

Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-5m in size, multi-septate, chestnut, brown color is characteristic of______?

A. Histoplasmosis
B. Rhinosporodiosis
C. Phaeohypomycosis
D. Chromoblastomycosis

Methods for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infection______?

A. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings
B. KOH staining
C. Wood light examination
D. All of the above

The following statement is true regarding fungal infection______?

A. Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal
B. Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man
C. albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals
D. Candida infection is usually endogenous

Common name for Trichuris trichura_______?

A. Round worm
B. Whip worm
C. Tape worm
D. Seat woman

Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores can be achieved with_______?

A. Grocott Gomori Methenamine silver
B. Hematoxylin and Eosin
C. KOH wet mount
D. Peri-iodic Acid Schiff

Leishmania is cultured in ______ media?

A. Chocolate agar
C. Tellurite
D. Sabourauds

Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti_______?

A. Causes filariasis
B. Body is slender and long
C. Terminal nuclei absent
D. Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts

Kolmer test is a screening test done for______?

A. Syphilis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Gonorrhea
D. Lymphoma

Cysticercosis celluosae is caused by______?

A. T. Solium
B. Echinococcus granulosus
C. T. Saginata
A. nana

Malaria pigment is______?

A. Bilurubin
B. Haemoglobin
C. Iron
D. Haematin-globin pigment

In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_____?

A. Sporozoite
B. Merozoite
C. Hypnozoite
D. Gametocyte

Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstratig______?

A. Cysts in the sterile pus
B. Trophozoites in the pus
C. Cysts in the intestine
D. Trophozoites in the feces

Parasitic inflammation would show predominantly______?

A. Lymphocytes
B. Neutrophilis
C. Eosinophils
D. Basophils

Megaloblastic anemia is caused by____?

A. Dog tapeworm
B. Hookworm
C. Fish tapeworm
D. Threadworm

L.D bodies are seen in______?

A. Kalahazar
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Malaria
D. Sleeping sickness

Hydatid cyst is_____?

A. Parasitic in nature
B. Fungal
C. Congenital
D. Viral

Candida albicans causes all of the following except______?

A. Endocarditis
B. Mycetoma
C. Meningitis
D. Oral thrush

Candida is most often implicated in causation______?

A. Conjunctivitis
B. Tenea capitis
C. Desert rheumatism
D. Thrush

Pseudohphae are seen in_____?

A. Alternaria
B. Aspergillus
C. Osporium
D. Candida albicans

A sporangium contains_____?

A. Spherules
B. porangiospores
C. Chlamydospores
D. Oidia

Aflatoxins are produced by_______?

A. Aspergillus Niger
B. Aspergillus fumigatus
C. Aspergillus flavus
D. All of the above

Germ tubes are formed mainly by____?

A. Candida albicans
B. Candida stellatoidea
C. Candida tropicalis
D. Candida pseudotropicalls

Fungal infection of human beings is called as______?

A. Mucorsis
B. Mycosis
C. Fungosis
D. Micromia

Which of the following is true about amoebic liver disease ?

A. Left lobe of liver is commonly involved
B. Portal system is the main filtration system
C. Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
D. Non-suppurative form is the serious form of extra intestinal amoebiasis

Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine?

A. Tuberculosis (BCG)
B. Typhoid
C. Varicella Zoster virus
D. Cholera

Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose______?

A. Anaphylaxis
B. Arthus reaction
C. Serum sickness
D. Contact dermatitis

Anaphylaxis refers to the____?

A. Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
B. Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions
C. State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
D. Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens

Which of the following is not used as disinfectant______?

A. 1-2% cetrimide
B. 100% alcohol
C. 2% Lysol
D. 5% chloroxylene

Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes_____?

A. NK Cells
B. Cytotoxic T cells
C. B cells
D. Memory B cells

Chemotactic cytokine is______?

A. IL-1
B. IL-6
C. IL-8

Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by_____?

A. Direct microscopy
B. Culture
D. DNA probe

The cell wall deficient bacteria______?

A. Rickettsiae
B. Mycoplasma
C. Chlamydiae
D. Ehrlichiae

Negative phase is seen in _____ immunity?

A. Active
B. Passive
C. Herd
D. Local

When horse serum is injected intravenously in to a rabbit and again in to the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs as the site of the second injection________?

A. Atopy
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Arthus phenomenon
D. Serum sickness

Which is type II hypersensitivity ?

A. Anaphylaxis
B. Delayed hypersensitivity
C. Immune complex mediated
D. Cytotoxic / cytolytic type

A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned in to an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis______?

A. Trichrome Methylene blue
B. Carbol Fuschin
C. Acid Fast Stain
D. Calcoflour White

The earliest identifiable cells of T-Cell lineage during maturation are_______?

A. CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
B. CD5+ Pre-T-Cells
C. CD8+ Pro-T-Cells
D. CD8+ Pre-T-Cells

The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement______?

A. IgE
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgG

The reaginic antibody is______?

A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgD
D. IgE

Secondary response is mediated by______?

A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgE

Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000______?

A. Secretory piece
B. H chain
C. L chain
D. J piece

Which of the following is true about pasteurization ?

A. It kills bacteria and spores
B. It kills all bacteria except thermoduric bacteria
C. It kills 95% of microorganisms
D. Tubercle bacilli are destroyed

Oil and Grease are sterilized by_______?

A. Hot air oven
B. Auto claving
C. Irradiation
D. Ethylene dioxide

Hot air oven is used for sterilization of all EXCEPT______?

A. Glassware
B. Rubber tubes
C. Sharp instrument
D. Liquid paraffin

Endoscopes are sterilized by using_____?

A. Autoclaving
B. Boiling
C. Cidex
D. Gamma radiation

Killer and Helper cells are part of_______?

A. B cells
B. T cells
C. Monocytes
D. Macrophage

T cells multiplication is stimulated by______?

A. Macrolin
B. Heat
C. Bovine serum
D. Phytohaemagglutinin

Same or closely related antigens present in different biological species are known as_____?

A. Suquestrated antigens
B. Isoantigens
C. Haptens
D. Heterophile antigens

Rh incompatibility is which type of hyper sensitivity reaction ?

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

The killer cells are associated with immunologic response_______?

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

The prototype of Type II hypersensitivity reaction is_____?

A. Arthus reaction
C. Auto immune hemolytic anemia
D. Contact dermatitis

Cold sterilization refers to the process of sterilization by use of_______?

A. Ultra violet rays
B. Ultrasonic vibrations
C. Infrared rays
D. Gamma rays

A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?

A. Xenograft
B. Autograft
C. Allograft
D. Isograft

Microbiology MCQs Practice Quizzes & Tests: Best for SSRC

Best Microbiology MCQs are given for preparation of Nursing jobs initial tests and interview. These are more helpful for joining Pak Army as a Captain or Major. 

Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins ?

A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgE

Active artificial immunization is induced by the administration of all of the following EXCEPT______?

A. Bacterial products
B. Toxoids
C. Vaccines
D. Antitoxins

Immunity that is conferred to the foetus by transfer of IgG and IgA antibodies is called as______?

A. Active acquired immunity
B. Passive acquired immunity
C. Natural active immunity
D. Passive natural immunity

The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with______?

A. IgM antibodies
B. Lysozyme
C. Mast cells
D. IgA antibodies

IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by_______?

A. Plasma cells
B. Activated macrophages
C. Lymphocytes
D. Platelet

Virus infected cell is killed by____?

A. Interferons
B. Macrophages
C. Neutrophils
D. Autolysis

Prozone phenomenon is due to______?

A. Disproportionate antigen antibody levels
B. Excess antigen
C. Excess antibody
D. Hyper immune reaction

Most sensitive test for antigen detection is_______?

A. Radioimmuno Assay
C. Immunoflourescence
D. Passive hemaglutination

Complement binding immunoglobin via the classical pathway is_______?

A. IgG & igM
B. IgG & IgA
C. IgG & IgD
D. IgD & IgE

Function of Ig A is_____?

A. Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
B. Circulating antibody
C. Kills virus infected cells
D. Activates macrophages

Antigen combining site of the antibody is______?

A. Idiotope
B. Paratope
C. Epitope
D. Hapten

Opsonisation is by_____?

A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM
E. Both C & D

Endotoxins are produced by_____?

A. Fungi
B. Gram +ve bacteria
C. Virus
D. Gram -ve bacteria

The antigen used in Weil Felix test is obtained from______?

A. Pseudomonas
A. coli
B. Proteus
C. Staphylococcus

Most of the drug resistances occurs due to______?

A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Mutation
D. conjugation

Spores are disinfected by______?

A. Glutaraldehyde
B. Betapropiolactone
C. Formaldehyde
D. Hexachlorophen
E. Both A & C

Flash pasteurization of milk is done at what temperature_____?

A. 125°C for new seconds
B. 60°C for 15 minutes
C. 72°C for 5 minutes
D. 72° for 15 – 20 Sec

Mesophilic organisms are those that grow best at temperature of____?

A. -20°C to -7°C
B. -7°C to + 20°C
C. 25°C to 40°C
D. 55°C to 80°C

The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is____?

A. Transformation
B. Translation
C. Conjugation
D. Lysogeny

Dorset’s egg medium is used for cultivation of______?

A. Staphylococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. Gonococcus
D. Mycobacterium

Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria____?

A. Loefflers serum slope
B. Mc Conkey
C. Saboraud agar
D. Lowenstein Jensen medium

The best skin disinfectant is_____?

A. Chlorhexdine
B. Alcohol
C. Savlon
D. None of the above

The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is______?

A. 10%
B. 2%
C. 5%
D. 15%

Louis Pasteur is not associated with_____?

A. Introduction of complex media
B. Discovery of Rabies Vaccine
C. Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
D. Disproved spontaneous regression theory

Anaerobic bacteria can be cultured in_______?

A. L-J medium
B. Robertson cooked meat medium
C. Loefflers medium
D. Sabourauds agar

Characters of exotoxin include all, except_____?

A. Protein polysaccharide complex
B. Heat labile
C. Highly potent
D. Has specific tissue affinity

Following reaction are produced by heterophil antigens except______?

A. Forssman antigen antibody reaction
B. Weil-Felix reaction
C. Paul bunnel reaction
D. Widal reaction

Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to_____?

A. Increase toxigenicity
B. Increase antigenicity
C. Reduce the antigenicity
D. reduce the toxigenicity

IgG has subclasses______?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Toxoids are____?

A. antigenic and toxic
B. antigenic and non-toxic
C. non-antigenic and toxic
D. non-antigenic and non-toxic

Human immunoglobulins are divided based on_____?

A. Functional differences
B. Structural differences
C. Complemented fixation
D. None of the above

IgG antibodies have a half-life of approximately_____?

A. 1 hour
B. 1 day
C. 1 week
D. 1 Month

The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______?

A. Erythema
B. Necrosis
C. Induration
D. Vasculitis

The medium of choice for growing most fungi is_____?

A. Blood agar
B. Tissue culture
C. Sabouraud’s agar
D. Thioglycollate medium

Robertsons cooked meat medium is best suited for cultivation of______?

A. Clostridia
B. S. epidermidis
C. Choleria
D. Mycobacterium

Dry heat destroys microorganisms by____?

A. Lysis
B. Oxidation
C. Hydrolysis of DNA
D. Coagulation of proteins

The anaphylaxis should be treated first with______?

A. Epinephrine
B. Steroids
C. Anti histamines
D. Antibiotics

Which of the following is not a koch’s postulate ?

A. The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue
B. When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
C. Pure cultures can be obtained
D. Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the experimental animals

In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a_______?

A. Hapten
B. Carrier
C. Super antigen
D. Toxin

Which of the following is not true of boiling water_____?

A. It can kill hepatitis B virus
B. Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
C. Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Can kill vegetative bacterial cells

Sunlight acts as sterilizing agent because______?

A. Long wavelength
B. short wave lenght
C. Ozone
D. Heat

Tyndallisation is carried out for_____?

A. One day
B. Two successive days
C. 60 minutes
D. Three successive days

A type of immediately occurring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called____?

A. Type I hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity
C. Type III hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity

Best method of sterilizing disposable syringes______?

A. Hot air oven
B. U.V. rays
C. Gamma rays
D. Boiling

Glutaraldehyde is preferred more than formaldehyde because______?

A. It has got more bactericidal activity
B. It has got more bacteriostatic activity
C. It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
D. Its application is easier

Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by_____?

A. Autoclaving
B. Hot air oven
C. UV-Radiation
D. Inspissation

Who first introduced solid media______?

A. Louis pasteur
B. Robert koch
C. Hensen
D. Ogston

Disinfection of the rooms can be done by using_____?

A. 20% phenol
B. High efficiency particle arrestors
C. 40% formaldehyde vapour
D. Chlorine gas

The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV irradiation______?

A. Lipids
B. Carbohydrates
C. Inorganic salts
D. Nucleic acids

The difference between sterilization and disinfection is that____?

A. Disinfection kills all spores but sterilization does not
B. Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
C. Sterilization involves chemicals and disinfection involves physical methods
D. Sterilization is easier to achieve

Blood agar is______?

A. Simple media
B. Transport media
C. Enriched media
D. Differential media

By using phase contrast microscope______?

A. Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
B. Internal structures are differentiated in dead cells
C. Internal metabolic activities can be observed
D. External capsule formation can be observed

Exotoxins are_____?

A. Lipid-polysaccharide complex
B. Protein compound
C. Lipoprotein
D. None

Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phase of the bacterial growth curve______?

A. Lag
B. Exponential growth
C. Stationary phase
D. Decline

Hot air oven cannot be used for sterilizing_____?

A. Clothes
B. Instruments
C. Culture media
D. Needles

Type of receptor present on T-cells are_____?

A. Ig A
B. Ig G
C. Prostaglandins
D. CD4

In patients with asthma due to an allergic cause the serum levels of which immunoglobulin increase_____?

A. IgD
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE

Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans_____?

A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgG
D. IgM

The term animalcules to oral microorganisms is given by_____?

A. Wd miller
B. Leumenhoek
C. Robertson
D. Socranci

Immunoglobulin crossing placenta is______?

A. Ig M
B. Ig A
C. Ig G
D. Ig D

Sterilization is a process in which______?

A. Kill all pathogenic micro-organisms
B. Kill all non-pathogenic micro-organisms in the environment
C. Deactivate all pathogens not spores
D. Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism

The key cell types involved in the acquired immunity include all EXCEPT_____?

A. B lymphocytes
B. Erythrocytes
C. T lymphocytes
D. Antigen presenting cells (APC

Complement factor through which common pathway begins_____?

A. C3
B. C5
C. C2
D. Protein B

Which of the following organisms does NOT react with gram’s stain ?

A. Actinomyces israelii
B. Candida albicans
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Streptococcus mutan

Microbiology MCQs Quizzes with Answer Key Free Download 

Phase contrast microscopy is based on principle of_______?

A. Different refractive indices of object
B. Different reflective indices of object
C. Light scattering
D. Light attenuation

Cold sterilization refers to the process of sterilization by use of_____?

A. Ultra violet rays
B. Ultrasonic vibrations
C. Infrared rays
D. Gamma rays

The term epitope refers to_____?

A. complete antigen molecule
B. Hapten
C. Immunogen
D. Smallest antigenic determinant

The Process of attenuation can be achieved by all except______?

A. Growing bacteria in adverse environment
B. Growing bacteria in unconventional host
C. Serial passage in an experimental host
D. Repeated cultures in artificial media

Post streptococcal acute glomerulo nephritis is an example of_______?

A. Type I hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity
C. Type III hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity

Bacterial cell does not possess_____?

B. Ribosome
C. Mitochondria
D. Cell wall

The Manufacturing unit of surgical needle & sutures are sterilized by _____?

A. Gamma-Rays
B. X-Rays
C. Autoclaving
D. Boiling

A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains and haemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism ?

A. Bile solubility
B. Optochin sensitivity
C. Bacitracin sensitivity
D. Cataslase positive

Purpose of Sterilization is to eliminate______?

A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
C. Spore formers
D. Fungus

Cell wall deficient bacteria are______?

A. Escherichia Coli
B. Staphylococci
C. Spirochetes
D. Mycoplasma

The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is_____?

A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgD

The function of IgD is_______?

A. Antigen recognition by B cells
B. Localization protection in external secretion
C. Compliment activation
D. Reagin activity

Cleavage of IgG molecule by Papin gives rise to:One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments_____?

A. One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
B. One Fc fragment and four Fab fragments
C. Two Fc fragments and two Fab fragments
D. Two Fc fragment and one Fab fragment

Physical sterilization was discovered by______?

A. Robert Koch
B. Joeph Lister
C. John Hunter
D. Alexander flemings

The best method of sterilization of dressing powder is____?

A. Autoclaving
B. Hot air oven
C. Inspissation
D. Tyndallization

One of the following statement about statements about sterilization is not true_____?

A. Liquid paraffin → Dry heat
B. Glass syringes → Boiling at 169°C for 60 min
C. Flash pasteurization of milk → 72° C for 15 seconds, followed quickly by rapid cooling to 13°C for lower
D. Vaccines → Ethylene oxide

Moist heat kills all of the following EXCEPT______?

A. Brucella
B. Mycobacterium
C. Salmonella
D. Coxiella burnetti

Which component of the cell wall is responsible_______?

A. Region I
B. Region II
C. Region III
D. Boivin antigen

T cell matures in____?

A. Payers patch
B. Lymph node
C. Thymus
D. Busra of Fabricius

CD4 cells recognize the antigens in association with______?

D. B-cell receptor

IL-1 is produced by______?

A. Helper T cells
B. Helper B cells
C. Monocytes
D. Macrophages

Grave’s disease is an example of type immunologic response______?

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which of the following_______?

A. B-cells
B. Active T cells
C. NK cells
D. Plasma cells

Which of the following is a live vaccine______?

A. 17 D
B. Salk
C. Hepatitis

Techoic acid is present in_____?

A. Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
B. Cell wall of Gram negative organisms
C. Cytoplasm of Gram positive organisms
D. Cytoplasm of Gram negative organisms

Which of the following are correctly matched ?

A. Transfer of antibody from mother to child is through colostrum and acquired passive immunity naturally
B. Injection of antibodies (Hepatitis) is artificially acquired passive immunity
C. Antigenic stimulus given by vaccine (polio) is artificial active immunity
D. All of the above

Selective media for MYCOBACTERIUM _____?

A. Sabourauds medium
B. Agar – agar
C. Lowenstein Jensen medium
D. Loefflers serum slope

Which of the following provides best gurantee for sterlization in the heat sterilizer ?

A. Using chemical indicator strip or pouch
B. Recording a temperature/ pressure readings from sterilizer guage
C. Using a bacterial spore test
D. Determining the ability of a sterilizer to kill the hepatitis B virus

The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum ?

A. IgG1
B. IgG2
C. IgG3
D. IgG4

Glassware are sterilized by_____?

A. Autoclaving
B. Hot air oven
C. Incineration
D. Formaldehyde

Function of T-lymphocyte is/are_____?

A. Production of interferon
B. Lymphokine production
C. Rosette formation
D. All of the above

Heptane is______?

A. Same as epitopes
B. Carrier required for specific antibody production
C. High molecular protein
D. None of the above

Delayed tuberculin test response is due to______?

A. B lymphocytes
B. T lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Histiocytes

VDRL is a______?

A. Slide flocculation test
B. Tube flocculation test
C. Tube agglutination test
D. Latex agglutination test

Secretory piece of IgA is synthesized in____?

A. T-cells
B. B-cells
C. Lymph nodes
D. Mucosal epithelium

Immunoglobulin consists of______?

A. 2 light, 2 heavy chains
B. 1 heavy, 2 light chains
C. 1 light, 1 heavy chain
D. 3 light, 1 heavy chain

The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as_____?

A. Clone
B. Epitope
C. Idiotope
D. Paratope

Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called______?

A. Opsonization
B. Chemotaxis
C. De coding

Immunoglobin, Which is produced first by the fetus in response to infection______?

A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgD


A. Involved in multidrug resistance transfer
B. Involved in conjugation
C. Imparts capsule formation
D. Imparts pili formation
E. Both A & B

Operation theatres are sterilized by____?

A. Carbolic acid spraying
B. Washing with soap and water
C. Formaldehyde fumigation
D. ETO gas

Hospital dressing is best disposed by______?

A. Incineration
B. Dumping
C. Autoclaving
D. Burying

Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci_______?

A. Staphylococcus
B. Micrococcus
C. Sarcina
D. Aerococcus

Sporulation occurs in_______?

A. Lag phase
B. Log phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Decline phase

Graft versus host reaction is caused by______?

A. B-Lymphocytes
B. T-lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Leukocytes

Smith noguchi’s media is used for______?

A. Salmonella
B. Klebsiella
C. Spirochetes
D. Bacillus

Noguchi’s medium is used for______?

A. Bordetella
B. Brucella
C. Borrelia
D. None of the above

One of the following staining methods is an example of negative staining_______?

A. Gram’s staining
B. Fontana’s staining
C. India ink preparation
D. Zheil-Neilson’s staining

Bacteria with tuft of flagella at one end are called_______?

A. Monotrichate
B. Peritrichate
C. Bipolar
D. Lophotrichate

Exaltation is______?

A. Decreased virulence
B. Increased Virulence
C. No change
D. None

First released immunoglobulin after primary immunization_____?

A. IgD
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM

B.C.G untrue is____?

A. live vaccine
B. T.B vaccine
C. Orally administered
D. All of the above

Sterilisation control for moist heat is “or” The efficacy of the moist heat sterilization technique commonly used to sterlilize laboratory ware and culture media is tested by using______?

A. using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
B. Using non-pathogenic strain of clostridium tetani
C. Using chemical indicator
D. Using methylene blue

Endotoxins differ from exotoxins in that endotoxins_____?

A. are proteins
B. are heat labile
C. are highly antigenic
D. activate complement by the alternate pathway

Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functional of the cell______?

A. wall
B. nucleus
C. membrane
D. Capsule

The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine doses not play a major role is________?

A. Urticaria
B. Asthma
C. Anaphylaxis
D. Arthus reaction

The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the_______?

A. VL domain
B. CL domain
C. CH1 domain
D. CH2 domain

Serum sickness syndrome is an example of_______?

A. Anaphylactic
B. Angioneurotic edema
C. Cell-mediated immunity
D. Systemic arthus reaction

Immunoglobulins are secreted by_______?

A. Macrophages
B. Plasma cells
C. T-cells
D. Neutrophils

A darkfield microscope would be useful in examining blood for_______?

A. Treponema
B. Actinomyces
C. Streptococcus
D. Mycobacterium

Disinfection frees the surface from_______?

A. Vegetative forms
B. Spore forms
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is________?

A. Hepatitis vaccination
B. Gamma globulin injection
C. Immune blood transfusion
D. Placental transfer of antibodies

Which of the following is an enrichment medium________?

A. Blood agar
B. Selenite F Broth
C. Mac Conkey agar
D. Nutrient Broth

Synthesis of antibodies in plasma cells occurs in_________?

A. Golgi body
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Nucleus
D. Mitochondria

Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is________?

A. IgE
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgA

The optimal time and temperature required for sterilization in an autoclave is_______?

A. 140°C x 2 hrs. x 10 lbs pr.
B. 121°F x 15 mts. x 15 lbs pr.
C. 121°F x 15 sec. x 15 lbs pr.
D. 121°C 15 mts. x 15 lbs pr.

Most antibodies are produced in the________?

A. Heart and the liver
B. Brain and the meninges
C. Thymus and the appendix
D. Spleen and the lymph nodes

Which of the following antibacterial substance is present in eggs and saliva ?

A. Lysozyme
B. Secretozyme
C. Albumin
D. Isozyme

The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to______?

A. Kill mircobes
B. Remove microbes
C. Inhibit microbial growth
D. Dehydrate microbial cells

Multiple drug resistance of bacteria depends on which of the following________?

A. Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
B. Colicigenic factor (Col)
C. Fertility factor (F+)
D. All of the above

All are not true for cultivation of anaerobic organisms except___?

A. Incubator
B. anaerobic jar
C. Refrigerator
D. Centrifuge

Rideal Walker test is used to determine the efficiency of the_____?

A. Disinfectant
B. Moist heat sterilisation
C. Antibiotics
D. Dry heat sterilization

Sterilization is_______?

A. Pathogens killed but spores are not affected
B. Only pathogenic micro-organisms killed
C. Non-pathogenic killed
D. All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed

Compared with autoclave, use of a dry heat over for sterilization has the following disadvantages_______?

A. Time-consuming
B. Less effective
C. Causes instruments to rust
D. Causes sharp instruments to dull

Which of the following is not a feature of anaphylaxis ?

A. Delayed reaction
B. Immediate reaction
C. passive transfer by serum
D. None of the above

Bacterial spores are destroyed by______?

A. Boiling at 100°C
B. Disinfection by hypochlorite solution
C. Autoclave
D. Pasteurisation

The Ig found in exocrine secretions is_______?

A. IgG
B. IgD
C. IgM
D. IgA

The interaction of antigens with antibodies on the surface of a mast cel leads to degranulation and anaphylaxis. The mast cell granules produce anaphylaxis because they contain_______?

A. Lysosomes
B. Proteolytic enzymes
C. Lymphotoxins
D. Vasoactive mediators

Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify_____?

A. Mycoplasma
B. Chlamydiae
C. Rickettsiae
D. Spirochaetes

The minimum time required for the sterilization of surgical instruments by moist heat at 134°C is_______?

A. 3 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 60 minutes

The best sterilization method for a hand-piece is________?

A. Ethylene oxide gas
B. dry heat
C. chemical vapour
D. All of the above

Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______?

A. Atopic allergy
B. Serum sickness
C. Transfusion reaction
D. Contact dermatitis

The chemotactic factor is________?

A. C2a
B. C3b
C. C4a
D. C5a

Steam under pressure in used in ________ sterilization?

A. Pasteurization
B. Autoclave
C. Kochs sterilizer
D. hot air oven

The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______?

A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG

All are true about legionella pneumophilia except_______?

A. Aquatic bodies are main habitat
B. It can replicate in amoeba
C. Urine test is a reliable method
D. Person to person transmission

Each of the following viruses possesses an outer lipoprotein envelope except_______?

A. Varicella Zoster Virus
B. Papilloma Virus
C. Influenza Virus
D. Human immunodeficiency virus

Actinomycosis is a_____?

A. Aerobic bacterial disease
B. Anaerobic bacterial disease
C. Aerobic fungal disease
D. Anaerobic fungal disease

Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?

A. Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
B. The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission
C. The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously
D. Causes positive Nagler reaction

Pseudomonas aeruginosa________?

A. Produces heat stable enterotoxin
B. Causes Shangai fever
C. Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.
D. Does not produce any pigment

Which is not true about vibrio cholera_____?

A. It is non-halophilic
B. Grows on simple media
C. Man is the only natural host
D. Cannot survive in extracellular environment

About Bacteroide True are all Except______?

A. Susceptible to many antibiotics
B. Present mainly in mixed infections
C. Most common species is B fragilis
D. Bile resistant anerobes

About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except_______?

A. Most common cause of urethritis is male
B. All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
C. Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection
D. Found exclusively in human beings.

Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by______?

A. Dextran
B. Epithelial cells
C. Bacteria
D. Sucrose

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best demonstrated by_______?

A. Gram’s stain
B. H & E stain
C. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
D. PAS stain

The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is______?

A. Treponema pallidum
B. Treponjema pertenue
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Borrelia vincenti

Bacterial species which is protective or beneficial to the host is_______?

A. Streptococcus sanguis
B. Porphyromonas gingivalis
C. Treponema denticola
D. Spirochetes

An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry cough, sputum culture showed growth on charcoal yeast Extract Medium, the organism is_______?

A. H. influenza
B. Moraxella catarrhalis
C. Legionella
D. Burkholderia cepacia

Which one of the following enteric organisms is anaerogenic and non motile ?

A. Shigella sonnei
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Klebsiella pneumonia

The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is_______?

A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Donovania granulomatis
C. Bartonella henselae
D. Hemophilia ducreya

Erysipelas is caused by________?

A. Group B staphylococci
B. Group A steptococci
C. Gonococci
D. Pneumococci

Which of the following is obligate aerobe ?

A. Pseudomonas aerogenosa
A. coli
B. Proteus
C. diphtheria

Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (SSS syndrome) is due to_______?

A. Enterotoxin A
B. Enterotoxin B
C. Enterotoxin D
D. Enterotoxin F

A 6 year old boy comes with abdominal pain, vomiting after consuming mild products within 6 hours. The most likely organism responsible is______?

A. Staph. aureus
B. Salmonella
C. B.Cereus
D. Clostridium botulinum

The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by______?

A. Transduction
B. Translation
C. Cell fusion
D. Conjugation

Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction______?

A. E.coli
B. Haemophilus
C. Proteus
D. Staphylococcus

A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT_______?

A. Vancomycin
B. Imipenem
C. Teichoplanin
D. Linezolid

Culture medium used for Bordatella pertussis is_______?

A. Wilson Blair medium
B. Bile broth
C. Bordet Gengou medium
D. Robertson cooked meat medium

Pasteur developed the vaccine for______?

A. Anthrax
B. Rabies
C. Cholera
D. All of the above

Teichoic acid is present in cell walls of________?

A. Gram positive bacteria
B. Gram negative bacteria
C. Yeast
D. Protozoa

Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in______?

A. Tissue culture
B. Chick embryos
C. Artificial media
D. Rabbit testis only

Borelia vincenti is a_____?

A. Mycoplasma
B. Mycobacteria
C. Spirochaete
D. Chlamydia

All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except_____?

A. Gram staining
B. Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital
C. Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide
D. Colony morphology on saliva agar

A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?

A. Pasturella spp
B. Francisella spp
C. Bartonella spp
D. Brucella spp

Pneumococus can be differentiated from streptococcus by______?

A. Type of hemolysis
B. Gram staining
C. Growth characteristics
D. Bile solubility

Streptococcus is classified based on_______?

A. M Protein
B. Cultural characteristics
C. Bile Solubility
D. Cell wall carbohydrate

Leprosy bacilli can be grown in______?

A. Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
B. Tail of guinea pig
C. Testes of albino rats
D. Testes of guinea pig

Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with______?

A. Ziel Nelson
B. Kin Young stain
C. Auramine-Rhodamine stain
D. Giemsa stain

Commonest mycobacterial infection in tropical countries_____?

A. M. leprae
B. M. avium intracellulare
C. M. tuberculosis
D. Kansasi

Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_______?

A. Theta toxin
B. Lecithinase
C. Desmolase
D. Cytokinin

Causative organism for gas gangrene______?

A. Clostridium tetani
B. Clostridium welchii
A. Coli
C. Strep. Faecalis


A. Multiply within living cell
B. Transmitted by arthropod vectors
C. Respond to tetracycline therapy
D. All of the above

False +ve for VDRL is seen in_____?

A. Yaws
B. Lepromatous Leprosy
C. Malaria
D. All of the above

The diagnostic investigation for syphilis is_______?

A. TPI test
B. VDRL test
C. TPHA test
D. FTAB test
E. Both C & D

Which organism causes prosthetic valve endocarditis within 60 days of surgery______?

A. Streptococcus Viridans
B. Staphylococcus epidermis
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Fungus

What is the transport medium for cholera______?

A. Tellurite Medium
B. Cary Blair Medium
C. Venkatraman – Ramakrishnan Medium
D. B & C

Which of the following are non-spore forming anaerobic bacteria that assume major significance in disease processes______?

A. Bacteroides fragilis
B. Fusobacterium nucleatum
C. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius
D. Actinomyces Israeli
E. All of the above

The diagnosis of gonorrhea is established by____?

A. Compliment fixation tests
B. Pili agglutination tests
C. Haemagglutination tests
D. All of the above tests

Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by______?

A. Streptococcus viridians
B. Haemolytic streptococci
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Nisseria

Growth factor needed for Salmonella______?

A. Tryptophan
B. Niacin
C. B-12
D. Citrate

Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is______?

A. Neisseria gonorrhea
B. Escherichia coli
C. T-strain mycoplasma
D. Streptococcus fecalis

Neurotoxin of tetanus acts on_____?

A. Synapse
B. Muscle
C. Brain
D. Spinal card

Encapsulation in bacteria helps in______?

A. Spore formation
B. Decreased virulence
C. Prevent their phagocytosis
D. Oxygen effect

Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces?

A. Capsule
B. Flagella
C. Pili
D. Mesosomes

Loss of capsule in bacteria is generally associated with______?

A. Decease in virulence
B. Loss of infectivity
C. Inability to spread through tissue
D. increase in invasiveness

Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of_______?

A. Malaria
B. Whooping cough
C. Gas gangrene
D. Wool sorters disease

The commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercie bacilli______?

A. Acridine orange
B. Thioglavin
C. Congo red
D. Auramine and Rhodamine

Actinomycosis is caused by______?

A. Fungus
B. Acid fast, non-motile bacillus
C. Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
D. Retrovirus

The facultative anaerobic bacteria are those who are______?

A. Unable to grow in the presence of oxygen
B. Unable to grow in the absence of oxygen
C. Able to grow in the presence of carbon dioxide
D. Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen

One of the following is a zoonotic disease_____?

A. Anthrax
B. Typhoid
C. Bacillary dysentery
D. Cholera

Common inhabitant of throat and tonsils is_____?

A. Alpha hymolytic streptococci (S. viridans)
B. Staphylococci
C. Beta hemolytic streptococci
D. Pneumococci

Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus is due to ________?

A. Pleomorphism
B. Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
C. Penicillin analogue production
D. Lack of nucleic acid in the cell wall

Malignant pustule is referred to_______?

A. Facio-cervical actinomycosis
B. Cutaneous anthrax
C. Infected squamous cell carcinoma
D. None of the above

The major intestinal pathogens which are non-lactose fermenters are_____?

A. Salmonella
B. Klebsiella
C. Escherichia
D. Paracolons

Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following_______?

A. Salk vaccine
B. Tetanus toxoid
C. Sabin’s oral vaccine
D. All of the above

Which of the following is anaerobic_____?

A. E.coli
B. Bacteroides
C. Pseudomonas
D. Klebsiella

Grape bunch shaped colonies are seen in____?

A. Streptococcus
B. Staphylococcus
C. E.coli
D. Gonococci

Which of the following enzyme is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot pathogenic staphylococci______?

A. Lysozyme
B. Fibrinolysin
C. Coagulase
D. S protein

Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except_____?

A. Though plasmids
B. Incorporating part of host DNA
C. Through bacteriophages
D. through conjugation

Bacteria with potent exotoxin is______?

A. Clostridium tetani
B. Pseudomonas
C. Shigella
D. Klebsiella

Wasserman test test is diagnostic of_______?

A. Syphilis
B. Gonorrhea
D. Tyhoid

Phage conversion is required for_____?

A. Tularemia
B. Diptheria
C. Gonorrhoea
D. All o f the above

Anaerobic bacteria grow_______?

A. in the presence of oxygen
B. in the presence of nitrogen
C. in the absence of oxygen
D. differential media

The bacterial cell wall has all of the following properties except______?

A. It consists of a mixed polymer called peptidoglycon
B. It is the structure principally responsible for the reaction of gram staining
C. It is a unique flexible plastic structure
D. It contains D-isomers of amino acids

Each of the following can cause food poisoning except______?

A. Cl. difficile
B. Staphylococcus
C. Cl. welchii
D. Cl. botulinum

The following are applicable to bacterial genoms except______?

A. It is composed of DNA
B. It doe not contain histones
C. It is circular
D. Its DNA has both introns and extrons

Electron microscopic examination of the bacterial flora of necrotising ulcerative gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are______?

A. Cocci
B. Spirochetes
C. Bacteriophages
D. Filamentous rods

The structure in involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface is______?

A. Capsule
B. Fimbria
C. Flagella
D. None of the above

Signs of tyhoid fever is/are________?

A. Haemorrhage
B. perforation
C. Osteomyelitis
D. All of the above

In initial stages of typhoid, salmonella can be detected in_______?

A. Feacus
B. Urine
C. Blood
D. All of the above

On a stained slide, clostridium tetani has the appearance of a______?

A. Bunch of a
B. Chain of beads
C. Drum stick
D. Safely pin

The urine sample of a patient has been sent to the laboratory to look for Leptospira. The specimen is to be screened by use of the_______?

A. Scanning microscope
B. Inverted microscope
C. Dark ground microscope
D. Electron microscope

Which of the following fulfil all the criterias of kich’s postulates ?

A. Treponema pallidum
B. Mycobacterium leprae
C. N. gonorrhoeae
D. None of the above

Among The infectious diseases transmitted by food, one is_______?

A. Viral stomatitis
B. Diptheria
C. Tuberculosis
D. Typhoid fever

Black pigmented anaerobes include all of the following except_____?

A. Tannerella
B. Porphyromonas
C. Buccae
D. Prevotella

All are true about bordetella pertussis except______?

A. Most common cause is B. Petrussis
B. It may occur in children and young adult after vaccination
C. Bacteria culture from nasopharyngeal swab is the definitive diagnosis
D. Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease

A full course of immunization against. Telanus with 3 doses to Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how many years ?

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

Salivary peroxidise system is known to be effective agianst______?

A. Actinomyces viscosus
B. Lactobacillus acidophilus
C. Streptococcus mutans
D. Veilonella parvula

About Psedomonas. All are true except_____?

A. Strick aerobes
B. Can grow in disinfectants in hospital
C. Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
D. Most common organism is burn patient

Lepromin test is useful for_______?

A. Diagnosis
B. Prognosis
C. Treatment plan
D. Epidemiology

All are true about wide test except_______?

A. Base lines differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
B. O antibodies last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
C. H antigen cannot differentiate between subtypes
D. High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative

Leptospirosis, all are true except_______?

A. Faeces & urine of rodents is the cause
B. Onset of IgM in 2 days
C. Incubation period is 10 days
D. It is sensitive to penicillin

Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to_______?

A. Invasion
B. Endotoxin
C. Exotoxin
D. Capsule

Following are the characteristics of Vincent’s angina EXCEPT______?

A. Ulcerative gingivostomatitis
B. Caused due to malnutrition
C. A symbiotic infection
D. Caused by leptospira interrogans

ASO (Antistreptolysin 0) test is uesd for the diagnosis of______?

A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Typhoid fever
C. Rheumatie fever
D. Rickettsial fever

Group A carbohydrate of Str. pyogenes cross reacts with human______?

A. Synovial fluid
B. Myocardium
C. Cardiac valves
D. Vascular intima

The most frequently encountered clostridia species in gas gangrene is_______?

A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium welchii
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Clostridium difficile

In small intestine, cholera toxin acts by_______?

A. ADP – ribosylation of the G regulatory protein
B. Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
C. Activation of GTPase
D. Active absorption of NaCI

Phospholipid used to investigate syphilis by the reagin test is______?

A. Cardiolipin
B. Plasminogen
C. Palmityl lecithin
D. Serine

Staphylococcal food poisoning includes the following features_____?

A. Incubation period of 24 hours
B. Requires immediate antibiotics
C. Common with dairy products
D. Heat labile enterotoxin

Fimbriae are demonstrated by ____?

A. Culture
B. Gram stain
C. Biochemical reaction
D. Haemagglutination test

The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is______?

A. Transduction
B. Translation
C. Lysogeny
D. Conjugation

cAMP reaction is shown by which streptococci ?

A. Group A
B. Group B
C. Group C
D. Group D

Cough plate method is used to identify____?

A. Y. pestis
B. Pertussis
C. Mycoplasma
D. M-Tuberculosis

Test for differentiating virulent form non-virulent tubercular bacilli____?

A. Aryl sulphatase test
B. Niacin test
C. Neutral red test
D. Catalase peroxidase test

The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are_____?

A. Gram positive organisms
B. Gram negative organisms
C. Mycoplasma
D. Virus infections

Negative staining is used to demonstrate_______?

A. Bacterial spore
B. Bacterial Flagella
C. Bacterial capsule
D. Bacterial fimbriae

Borrelia vincenti is always associated with______?

A. Spirochaetes
B. Fusiform bacilli
C. Treponema vincenti
D. None of the above

Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except_____?

A. Through plasmids
B. Incorporating part of host DNA
C. Through bacteriophages
D. Through conjugation

All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except_____?

A. Neisseria meningitides
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Legionella pneumophila

Chlamydia causes all of the following except_______?

A. Trachoma
B. Non-gonococcal urethritis
C. Pneumonia
D. Parotitis

Lancefields classification of B hemolytic streptococcus is based on______?

A. M Protein
B. Polysaccharide C antigen
C. Type of lipid in cell membrane
D. Physiological properties

Leprosy bacilli are transmitted from person to person by all except_____?

A. Dischange from nasal mucosa
B. From open sore
C. Through intact skin
D. Through breast milk

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical mycobacteria by____?

A. Niacin test
B. AFB staining
C. Pas staining
D. None of the above

In T.B cell mediated immunity is by_______?

A. CD 4*
B. CD 8*
C. B – lymphocytes
D. None of the above

Nagglers reaction detects______?

A. Coagulase
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Lecithinase
D. None of the above

Drumstick appearance is seen in_______?

A. Cl. tetani
B. Cl. tetanomorphum
C. Cl. sphenoids
D. All of the above

Q fever is caused by_____?

A. Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
B. R. prowozekii
C. R. quintana
D. C. burnetti

Actinomycetes is______?

A. Gram positive bacteria
B. Gram negative bacteria
C. Fungus
D. A yeast like form

True about VDRL test______?

A. Non – Specific
B. Slide flocculation test
C. Best followed for drug therapy
D. All of the above

Staphylococcus does not causes_____?

A. Osteomyelitis
B. Abscess
C. Scarlet fever
D. Pneumonia

Vibrio cholera was discovered by______?

A. Koch
B. Medintoff
C. John snow
D. Virchow

Virulence of Gonococcus is due to______?

A. Pili
B. Cell Membrane
C. Its intracellular location
D. Cytolytic enzymes

Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria_______?

A. Loefflers serum slope
B. Mc Conkey
C. Saborauds agar
D. Lowenstein Jensen Medium

Thumb print appearance in culture film smear is seen______?

A. Bacillus anthracis
2. Brucella species
3. Bordetelia pertussis
4. Clostridium weichii

Widal test is specific for____?

A. Plague
B. Leprosy
C. Pemhigoid
D. Typhoid

Granules in the corynebacterium diphtheria are called by following names, except_____?

A. Metachromatic granules
B. Refractile granules
C. Babes Ernst granules
D. Voluntin granules

Tuberculin test screens for____?

A. Hemoral immunity
B. Cell mediated immunity
C. Complement function
D. Phagocyte dysfunction

Which of the following have the capability to produce extra cellular polysaccharides_____?

A. Strep. Mutans
B. Strep. pyogenes
C. Peptostreptococcus
D. Enterococcus

The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is____?

A. Mannitol fermentation
B. Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes
C. Detection of coagulase
D. The catalase test

Which of the following characteristics of bacteria is not true?

A. Unicellular
B. Free living
C. Having either DNA or RNA
D. Cell wall containing muramic acid

Salmonella typhi can be isolated at different times from______?

A. Feaces
B. Blood
C. Urine
D. All of the above

The temperature required for cultivating mycobacterium_______?

A. 2 degree
B. 0 degree
C. 27 degrees
D. 37 degrees

Silver impregnation method of staining is useful to demonstrate_____?

A. Bacterial flagella
B. Spirochetes
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

Gram -ve bacteria stain during gram staining______?

A. Blue color
B. Red color
C. Green
D. Colorless

The most common site where organisms are present in a typhoid carrier is______?

A. Spleen
B. Gall Bladder
C. Liver
D. Salivary gland

Diphtheria is pathogenic only when infected with_______?

A. Beta phage
B. Alfa phage
C. Lambda K12
D. Delta Phage

Which of the following is an acid-fast bacillus_______?

A. Mycobacterium bacilli
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Neisseria gonorrhea
D. All of the above

Group A B-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the pharynx may be followed in some by______?

A. Diphtheria
B. Typhoid fever
C. Rheumatic fever
D. Syphilis

Causative agents of Vincent’s angina_____?

A. Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
B. Borrelia recurrents and bateroides
C. Borrelia burgoloferi and lactobacillus
D. Leptospira and Treponema pallidum

A protoplast is best characterized as a bacterial cell_______?

A. with a cell wall but free of a capsule
B. containing a cell wall and a capsule
C. Free of a cell wall and a capsule
D. Uniquely sensitive to penicillin

Which regards to temperature requirement, most pathogenic bacteria are_____?

A. Psychrophiles
B. Mesophiles
C. Cryophiles
D. Thermophiles

One of the following is an agglutination test in the diagnosis of typhoid____?

A. Widal test
B. Eleks test
C. Mantoux test
D. Wasserman test

Staphylococci typically occur in_______?

A. Pairs
B. Chains
C. Tetrads
D. Irregular clusters

In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by_____?

A. Blood culture
B. Widal test
C. Stool culture
D. Urine culture

The virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhea include all of the following except______?

A. Outer membrane proteins
B. IgA Protease
C. M-Proteins
D. Pili

The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in vivo from one bacterium to another by_____?

A. Conjugation
B. Rarefaction
C. Transduction
D. Transformation

One of the following is a treponemal test for diagnosis of syphilis______?

B. Widal test
C. Wasserman test
D. Kahn test

For uniform staining reaction, morphology and biochemical activity it is advisable to study bacterial cultures during the_____?

A. Lag phase
B. Death phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Logarithmic phase

Organ of locomotion in bacteria is______?

A. Fimbria
B. Flagella
C. Capsule
D. Cell wall

Endotoxin have all but one of the properties given below____?

A. Produced by gram negative bacteria
B. Produced by gram positive bacteria
C. Not secreted outside the cell
D. Cannot be toxoided

Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor_____?

A. M protein
B. Pyrogenic exotoxin
C. Streptolysin 0
D. Carbohydrate cell wall

The commonest method of detection of diptheria carriers is___?

A. Schick test
B. Dick test
C. Casoni’s test
D. Charles’ test

The difference between gram positive and negative bacteria lies in their_____?

A. cell wall
B. cell membrane
C. Nuclear material
D. Mesosomes

The specific test for Treponema pallidum is_____?

B. Kahn’s test
D. Widal test

All of the following are true of streptococcus except____?

A. It’s group of lactic acid production bacteria
B. Shows adherence to dental enamel
C. Most common in humans
D. Most common is animals

Bacteria reproduce mainly by_____?

A. Budding
B. Binary fission
C. Sporing
D. Bacterial components produced by host cells

An oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod which produces a bluish-green pigment has been grown in culture from a swab obtained from an infected burn wound. This organism is susceptible to gentamicin, ticarcillin and tobramicin, but resistant to all the other antibiotics which of the following organisms is it likely to be ?

A. Escherichia coli
B. Klebsiella pnemoniae
C. Proteus miribilis
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

The causative organism of syphilis is_____?

A. Borrelia burgolorferi
B. Chalamydia trachomatis
C. Leptospira interrogans
D. Treponema pallidum

1.     Join Pak Army as an Army OfficerClick Here
2.     Join Pakistan Navy as a Navy OfficerClick Here
3.     Join PAF as a PAF OfficerClick Here

Latest Posts

Scroll to Top