Microbiology MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions)
Every individual who has degree of MBBS and seeking jobs in Pakistan Defence Forces like Pak Army, Pak Navy or PAF then there is great opportunity to Join Pak Army as a Captain or Major.
Such candidates must be aware about all those questions which they face into the initial tests like Microbiology MCQs. Microbiology MCQs are available here particularly which help in bringing success 100%.
Those candidates who are interested to appear in the Short Services Regular Commission in Pak Army, they must learn all necessary Microbiology MCQs because these are often asked in the past papers of Short Service Regular Commission. Microbiology MCQs are also given in PDF for better learning of the students.
Microbiology MCQs related to amoeba, protozoa, viruses, are bacteria are often repeated in the academic tests of AFNS, Army Medical College admissions and also in all types of Nursing Jobs. In the following, Microbiology MCQs are given with answers which help students in the initial tests as well as in interview.
Moreover, Microbiology MCQs help in many online tests, quizzes, viva voce, certifications, competitive examinations like PPSC, FPSC, CSS, etc.
Click Here: Free Download Microbiology MCQs in PDF
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Microbiology MCQ With Answers Keys. Free Download
In the following, Microbiology MCQs are given with answers which can be free downloaded and may be converted into PDF for any medical tests examination.
A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates______?
A. Acute infection
B. Carrier state
C. Prodromal phase
D. Convalescence
Cytopathic effect is shown by_______?
A. Virus
B. Bacteria
C. Spirochete
D. Anaerobe
Which of the following would you consider to be general properties of viruses________?
A. New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses
B. Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit
C. Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids
D. Contain DNA but no RNA
Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_______?
A. Cryptococcosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Candidiasis
D. Aspergilosis
Viruses can be cultured in all except______?
A. Chick embryo
B. Blood agar
C. Guinea pigs
D. Cell culture
Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____?
A. 1 week
B. 6 week
C. 3 months
D. 6 months
The Window period in HIV infection means_____?
A. The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies
B. The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS
C. The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab
D. None of the above
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affects_______?
A. Red blood cells
B. Fibroblasts
C. Helper T lymphocytes (CD4)
D. Mast cells
The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is______?
A. Apthous stomatitis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
D. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
Influenza is caused by______?
A. Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
B. Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
C. Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
D. Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
Human immune deficiency virus is ____ virus?
A. Rheo
B. Retro
C. Rhabdo
D. Flavi
Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in which of the following viruses______?
A. Pox virus
B. Measles virus
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. HIV
In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started______?
A. Rabies
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Influenza
D. Herpes
Incubation period of herpes zoster is______?
A. 7-14 days
B. 1 months
C. 1-2 years
D. 3-6 months
True about prions________?
A. Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid
B. Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
C. Viruses which are genetically deficient
D. Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective
Pigs are important source of_____?
A. Japanese encephalitis
B. Kuru
C. Yellow fever
D. Rabies
Herpes virus_______?
A. Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane
B. Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane
C. Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane
D. None of the above
The presence of Which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility ?
A. Enzymes
B. Protein coat
C. Polysaccharide
D. Lipids
Certain viruses have been isolated in crystalline form and have been found to be_____?
A. Nucleotides
B. Phospholipids
C. Scleroproteins
D. Nucleoproteins
The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by which of the following_______?
A. Boiling
B. Ethanol
C. Cidex
D. All of the above
Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly______?
A. Gastrointestinal tract
B. Nasal mucosa
C. Lung
D. Skin
Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates______?
A. Simple carriers
B. Late convalescence
C. High infectivity
D. Carrier status
Which does not have a viral etiology_____?
A. Carcinoma Cervix
B. Hepatoma
C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
D. Lymphoma
Viron is defined as_______?
A. Extracellular infectious virus particle
B. Smallest virus
C. A smallest particle similar to virus
D. None of the above
One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is_____?
A. Viral interference
B. Mutation
C. Supervision
D. Permutation
The only virus, which has double stranded RNA, is_____?
A. Bunya virus
B. Reo virus
C. Calci virus
D. Rhabdo virus
Which of the following correctly indicates the infectivity of hepatitis virus in human ?
A. HBCAg
B. HBeAg
C. Anti-HBC
D. Anti-HBS
Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus infection during window period ?
A. HBs Ag
B. IgM anti – HBc
C. Anti HBs
D. None of the above
For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except______?
A. Give immunoglobulins for passive immunity
B. Give ARV
C. Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
D. Immediately wash wound with soap and water
Which of the following is a RNA virus ?
A. Measles virus
B. Herpes Virus
C. Papavo virus
D. Adeno virus
Following is a retrovirus_______?
A. Immunodeficiency virus
B. Influenza
C. Polio virus
D. Hepatitis virus
Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____?
A. Type 6,12,18
B. 16,18,31
C. 6,8,11
D. 3,10,19
The viral action is differentiated from bacterial action by______?
A. Interferon production
B. Toxin production
C. Lymphocytes production
D. Neutrophils production
What is the sequence which a retro virus follows on entering a host cell ?
A. RNA -DNA-RNA
B. RNA-DNA
C. DNA-RNA
D. DNA-RNA-DNA
Which of the following viruses appears to be involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi’s sarcoma_____?
A. Human Herpes Virus 3
B. Human Herpes Virus 1
C. Human Herpes Virus 8
D. Human Herpes Virus 4
Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in______?
A. 2 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 9 weeks
D. 12 weeks
Babu, a 28 year old male comes with complaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by______?
A. ELISA
B. Western blot
C. P24 antigen
D. Lymph node biopsy
Anti HBsAB indicates_______?
A. Resistance to hepatitis B
B. Acute infection
C. Good prognosis
D. Hepatocellular carcinoma
Presence of HBe Ag in Patients with hepatitis indicates_______?
A. Simple carriers
B. Late convalescence
C. High infectivity
D. Carrier status
Which of the following does not go into chronic hepatitis stage ?
A. HBV
B. HCV
C. HDV
D. HEV
Which of the following belongs to cell fraction derived vaccine______?
A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Rubella
D. Hepatitis B
Dengue virus belongs to______?
A. Flavi virus
B. Togaviridae
C. Reoviridae
D. Rhabdoviridae
Which of the following statement about P24 antigen of HIV is Not True ?
A. It can be detected during the window period
B. Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:
C. Virus load parallel P24 titre
D. It remains during asymptomatic phase
Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause feudal defect ?
A. Herpes Simplex
B. Mumps
C. Rubella
D. Papilloma
Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies______?
A. Chicken pox
B. Rabies
C. Small pox
D. Measles
Characteristic feature of retrovirus is____?
A. Ribonuclease
B. Reverse transcriptase
C. DNA polymerase
D. Restriction endonuclease
Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by______?
A. Virus
B. Bacteria
C. Parasite
D. Bacteria superadded on virus
Interferon interferes with replication of virus at the time of_______?
A. Protein synthesis
B. DNA/RNA replication
C. When virus enters the cell
D. Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule
Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?
A. Mycobacteria
B. Spore
C. Prions
D. Coccidia
Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus ?
A. Verruca vulgaris
B. Focal epithelial hyperplasia
C. Condyloma acuminatum
D. Keratoacanthoma
Prions true is_____?
A. Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C
B. Evokes strong immunogenic reaction
C. Sensitive to most chemical sterilization
D. Contains DNA/ RNA
A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely etiological agent is______?
A. Hepatitis B virus
B. Hepatitis C virus
C. Hepatitis E virus
D. Hepatitis A virus
Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is_____?
A. Sialoperoxidase
B. Secretory IgA
C. Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
D. Histidine rich proteins
A dentist suffred from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is______?
A. Inactive carrier
B. Healthy carrier
C. Convalscent carrier
D. Paradoxical carrier
Virus is cultured in_______?
A. Saubourd’s agar
B. Rogosa medium
C. Nonembryonated egg
D. Embryonated egg
Kaposi’s sarcoma (KS) usually occurs when CD4 Lymphocyte counts are______?
A. Above 600
B. Between 1000-2000
C. Below 200
D. Above 2000
Mark true in following ?
A. Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces
B. Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
C. Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
D. None of the above
The world German measles is applied for_____?
A. Rubella
B. Rubeola
C. Herpes simplex
D. Herpetic ginglvostomatitis
Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by_______?
A. IgM antibodies in serum
B. Isolation form stool
C. Culture from blood
D. Isolation from bile
Which of the following is not a pox virus ?
A. Cowpox
B. Molluscum contagiosum
C. Small pox
D. chicken pox
Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by_____?
A. Surface antigen
B. Surface antibody
C. Core antigen
D. Core antibody
ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______?
A. Less sensitive less specific
B. More sensitive, more specific
C. Less sensitive, more specific
D. More sensitive, less specific
The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is______?
A. Adeno
B. Hepatitis
C. EB virus
D. Parvo virus
In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to____?
A. CD8 T-cells
B. CD4 T-cells
C. B – cells
D. NK – cells
The small nonparticulate protein leading to enhanced replication of HBV as well as HIV is______?
A. HBc Ag
B. HBs Ag
C. Hbe Ag
D. HBx Ag
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Microbiology MCQs Quizzes with Answer Key Free
Find here more Microbiology MCQs with answers if you want to give medical entrance tests for any medical admission or nursing jobs.
Patients with organ transplants are most frequently infected with______?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. CMV
D. EBV
EBV is responsible for all except_____?
A. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
B. Burkitt’s lymphoma
C. Hepatoma
D. Infectious mononucleosis
Most common tumor associated with AIDS is________?
A. Carcinoma
B. Kaposi’s sarcoma
C. Melanoma
D. Ewing’s sarcoma
The overall effect of HIV is to gradually impair the immune system by interference with_____?
A. Helper T lymphocytes
B. Natural killer cells
C. Plasma cells
D. Macrophages
Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups ?
A. Picorna viruses
B. Herpes viruses
C. Hepadana viruses
D. Flavi viruses
Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except_______?
A. Tissue culture
B. Embryonated eggs
C. Animals
D. Chemically defined media
During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______?
A. ELISA IS – ve
B. Western Blot is – ve
C. Both are – ve
D. PCR is – ve
Plaque test is used routinely in virology lab’s for______?
A. Identification of viral disease
B. To separate specific clone of virus
C. To maintain certain viral culture
D. To prepare vaccines
All are oncogenic except_______?
A. Anopheles
B. Aedes
C. Culex
D. Mansoni
DNA covering material in a virus is called as_____?
A. Capsomere
B. Capsid
C. Nucleocapsid
D. Envelope
All are oncogenic except_______?
A. EB virus
B. Papilloma virus
C. Herpes simplex virus
D. Varicella zoster virus
True about HIV are all except____?
A. DNA virus
B. Attacks CD4 cells
C. Macrophages are the reservoir
D. Decrease CD4 count in late stages
EBV causes all except_________?
A. Carcinoma of nasopharynx
B. Papilloma
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Burkitt’s lymphoma
Australian antigen is________?
A. HB Ag
B. HBs AG
C. HBV
D. None of the above
Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?
A. Virus isolation
B. Western blot followed by ELISA
C. ELISA followed by western blot technique
D. Polymers chain reaction
Enterically transmitted NANB hepatitis B______?
A. Hepatitis C
B. Hepatitis D
C. Hepatitis E
D. Hepatitis F
True about immune response of hepatitis B is_______?
A. Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
B. Antibody to HBC is not protective
C. Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
D. CMI disappears soon after recover
The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell – culture is______?
A. Cytopathic changes in culture cells
B. Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
C. Haemagglutination test
D. Haemagglutination inhibition test
The Dane particle is the_______?
A. HBV
B. IgG anti HAV
C. Delta Virus
D. HBC Ag
Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except_______?
A. Failure to thrive
B. Have infections
C. 50% chances to have AIDS
D. All are true
The time gap between appearance of Koplik’s spot and cutaneous rash in measles is_______?
A. 24 Hrs
B. 3-4 days
C. 2 weeks
D. 10 days
Rabies virus______?
A. Cytotropic
B. Dermatotropic
C. Chromophilic
D. Neurotropic
Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_____?
A. Presence of either DNA or RNA
B. Simple structure
C. Complex multiplication
D. All of the above
The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route_______?
A. Hepatitis B virus
B. Hepatitis C virus
C. Hepatitis D virus
D. Hepatitis E virus
Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a______?
A. ELISA
B. Immunodot
C. RIPA
D. Western Blot
Bacteriophage was discovered by______?
A. Robert koch
B. Twort and d’herelle
C. Menkin
D. Metchinkoff
Australia antigen is associated with_______?
A. Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis
B. AIDS
C. Chronic leukemia
D. Basal cell carcinoma
Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_______?
A. in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks
B. only after one year
C. no antibodies are present in primary HSV
D. antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis
Half-life of free HIV in plasma is_____?
A. 24 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 3 months
The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is______?
A. Chocolate agar
B. Robertoson’s cooked-meat broth
C. Chorio allantoic membrane
D. Sabourad’s agar
All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except_______?
A. HIV
B. Hepatitis C
C. Hepatitis B
D. Hepatitis E
HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except_______?
A. Saliva
B. Needle prick injury
C. Blood transmission
D. Sexual intercourse
The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is ______?
A. exotoxin production
B. lecithinase production
C. hypersensitivity
D. Coagulase production
Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is ____?
A. Penicillium
B. Aspergillus
C. Mucor
D. Rhizopus
The culture media for fungus is_______?
A. Tellurite medium
B. NNN medium
C. Chocolate agar medium
D. Sabourauds medium
The medium of choice for culturing yeast from of dimorphic fungi is_______?
A. Brain – heart infusion
B. Sabouraud’s
C. Sabouraud’s plus antibiotics
D. Any medium incubated at 35-37°C
Dematophytes are fungi infecting______?
A. Subcutaneous tissue
B. Systemic organs
C. Nails, hair and skin
D. Superficial skin and deep tissue
Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except______?
A. Giardia lambia
B. Ascaris lumbriocoides
C. Strongyloides
D. Entamoeba
Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is_______?
A. Indirect hemagglutination
B. ELISA
C. Counter immune electroporesis
D. Microscopy
Black water fever is caused by_____?
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Leishmania donovani
D. Microfilaria
Causative organism of Kalahazar is_____?
A. Plasmodium ovaie
B. Leishman donovani
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Toxoplasma
All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_______?
A. coli
B. nana
A. gingivalis
B. histolytica
All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except______?
A. Cysts are 8 nucleated
B. Cysts are 4 nucleated
C. Trophozoites colonise in the colon
D. The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides
All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_______?
A. Glycogen mass
B. Chromatid bars
C. Eccentric nucleus
D. Refractile nucleus
Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______?
A. Dot
B. Comma
C. Banana
D. Sickle
True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by______?
A. cats
B. Dogs
C. Rats
D. Cow
Which worm is longest_____?
A. T. Solium
B. T. Saginata
C. Hook worm
D. A. Lumbricoides
Thread worm is_____?
A. Enterobius
B. Ancylostoma
C. Ascaris
D. Necator
Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to_____?
A. Hook worm
B. Thread worm
C. Ascaris
D. Guinea worm
Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in_____?
A. Ascariasis
B. Tapeworm
C. Hood worm
D. Ascariasis and tapeworm
Culture media of candida is_______?
A. Methylene blue dextrose agar
B. Saboraud’s medium
C. Pingolevin
D. All of the above
The following is not true of Candida albicans_____?
A. Yeast like fungus
B. Forms Chlamydospores
C. Blastomeres seen in isolates
D. Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them
Opportunistic infection is caused by_______?
A. Penicillium
B. Mucor
C. Aspergillus
D. All of the above
The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_______?
A. Kerison
B. Alopecia areata
C. Pilomatrixoma
D. Tenia incognito
Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by _____?
A. Candida albicans
B. Mucor
C. Cryptococcus
D. Aspergillus
Candidal hyphae can be stained using______?
A. Van Gieson’s stain
B. Periodic acid schiff stain
C. Masson Trichrome stain
D. Toluidine blue stain
Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________?
A. Noncapsulated fungus infecting man
B. Causes meningitis
C. Melanin production related to virulence
D. Basidiomycetes yeast
Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is______?
A. 2:1
B. 1:2
C. 3:1
D. 1:3
Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve______?
A. Caecum and large intestine
B. Duodenum
C. Stomach
D. Jejunum and Ileum
Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection______?
A. Giardia lambella
B. Isopora belli
C. Balantidium coli
D. Taenia solium
Probiotic organism used______?
A. E coli
B. Bifido bacteria
C. Staphylococcus
D. Salmonella
Sleeping sickness is caused by______?
A. House fly
B. Sand fly
C. Tick
D. Reduvid bug
Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by______?
A. M. Kansasii
B. M. ulcerans
C. M. chelonae
D. M. smegmatis
Donovanosis, true is______?
A. Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
B. Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic
C. Penicillin is drug of choice
D. Characterized by painful genital ulcers
CD4 count in normal healthy adult is______?
A. 500
B. 200
C. 1000
D. 300
A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is_____?
A. India ink preparation
B. Methanamine silver stain
C. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
D. Pyte-ferraco stain
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Microbiology MCQs Practice Questions
Microbiology MCQs are given for practice which were collected from the students who have appeared in the past medical examinations like AFNS, SSRC and Nursing examinations.
Most fungi of medical importance belongs to_____?
A. Zygomycetes
B. Ascomycetes
C. Basidiomycetes
D. Deuteromycetes
A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents_______?
A. Allo
B. ISO
C. Xeno
D. Auto
Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?
A. Adjuvant
B. Proteins
C. Polysaccharides
D. Lipids
In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except______?
A. Hemolysis
B. Malabsorption
C. Spleen sequestration
D. Bone marrow depression
Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?
A. Trench fever
B. Relapsing fever
C. Q fever
D. Epidemic typhus
Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito_______?
A. Sporozoite
B. Gametocyte
C. Merozoite
D. Zygote
Schuffner’s dots are seen in infection due to_____?
A. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Plasmodium vivax
C. Plasmodium malariae
D. Plasmodium ovale
Man is the only reservoir for_______?
A. Salmonella
B. Camphylobacter jejuni
A. histolytica
C. Y. enterocolitica
A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the causative agent ?
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium malaria
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium ovale
Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is________?
A. Brain
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Lungs
Delhi boil refer to________?
A. Solar Keratosis
B. Malignant pustule
C. L. Tropica sore
D. Venereal ulcer
Madura mycosis produces_____?
A. Brown to black granules
B. White to yellow granules
C. Red granules
D. No granules
Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-5m in size, multi-septate, chestnut, brown color is characteristic of______?
A. Histoplasmosis
B. Rhinosporodiosis
C. Phaeohypomycosis
D. Chromoblastomycosis
Methods for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infection______?
A. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings
B. KOH staining
C. Wood light examination
D. All of the above
The following statement is true regarding fungal infection______?
A. Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal
B. Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man
C. albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals
D. Candida infection is usually endogenous
Common name for Trichuris trichura_______?
A. Round worm
B. Whip worm
C. Tape worm
D. Seat woman
Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores can be achieved with_______?
A. Grocott Gomori Methenamine silver
B. Hematoxylin and Eosin
C. KOH wet mount
D. Peri-iodic Acid Schiff
Leishmania is cultured in ______ media?
A. Chocolate agar
B. NNN
C. Tellurite
D. Sabourauds
Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti_______?
A. Causes filariasis
B. Body is slender and long
C. Terminal nuclei absent
D. Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts
Kolmer test is a screening test done for______?
A. Syphilis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Gonorrhea
D. Lymphoma
Cysticercosis celluosae is caused by______?
A. T. Solium
B. Echinococcus granulosus
C. T. Saginata
A. nana
Malaria pigment is______?
A. Bilurubin
B. Haemoglobin
C. Iron
D. Haematin-globin pigment
In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_____?
A. Sporozoite
B. Merozoite
C. Hypnozoite
D. Gametocyte
Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstratig______?
A. Cysts in the sterile pus
B. Trophozoites in the pus
C. Cysts in the intestine
D. Trophozoites in the feces
Parasitic inflammation would show predominantly______?
A. Lymphocytes
B. Neutrophilis
C. Eosinophils
D. Basophils
Megaloblastic anemia is caused by____?
A. Dog tapeworm
B. Hookworm
C. Fish tapeworm
D. Threadworm
L.D bodies are seen in______?
A. Kalahazar
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Malaria
D. Sleeping sickness
Hydatid cyst is_____?
A. Parasitic in nature
B. Fungal
C. Congenital
D. Viral
Candida albicans causes all of the following except______?
A. Endocarditis
B. Mycetoma
C. Meningitis
D. Oral thrush
Candida is most often implicated in causation______?
A. Conjunctivitis
B. Tenea capitis
C. Desert rheumatism
D. Thrush
Pseudohphae are seen in_____?
A. Alternaria
B. Aspergillus
C. Osporium
D. Candida albicans
A sporangium contains_____?
A. Spherules
B. porangiospores
C. Chlamydospores
D. Oidia
Aflatoxins are produced by_______?
A. Aspergillus Niger
B. Aspergillus fumigatus
C. Aspergillus flavus
D. All of the above
Germ tubes are formed mainly by____?
A. Candida albicans
B. Candida stellatoidea
C. Candida tropicalis
D. Candida pseudotropicalls
Fungal infection of human beings is called as______?
A. Mucorsis
B. Mycosis
C. Fungosis
D. Micromia
Which of the following is true about amoebic liver disease ?
A. Left lobe of liver is commonly involved
B. Portal system is the main filtration system
C. Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus
D. Non-suppurative form is the serious form of extra intestinal amoebiasis
Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine?
A. Tuberculosis (BCG)
B. Typhoid
C. Varicella Zoster virus
D. Cholera
Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the sensitizing and shocking dose______?
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Arthus reaction
C. Serum sickness
D. Contact dermatitis
Anaphylaxis refers to the____?
A. Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual
B. Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions
C. State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
D. Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens
Which of the following is not used as disinfectant______?
A. 1-2% cetrimide
B. 100% alcohol
C. 2% Lysol
D. 5% chloroxylene
Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes_____?
A. NK Cells
B. Cytotoxic T cells
C. B cells
D. Memory B cells
Chemotactic cytokine is______?
A. IL-1
B. IL-6
C. IL-8
D. TNF
Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by_____?
A. Direct microscopy
B. Culture
C. ELISA
D. DNA probe
The cell wall deficient bacteria______?
A. Rickettsiae
B. Mycoplasma
C. Chlamydiae
D. Ehrlichiae
Negative phase is seen in _____ immunity?
A. Active
B. Passive
C. Herd
D. Local
When horse serum is injected intravenously in to a rabbit and again in to the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs as the site of the second injection________?
A. Atopy
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Arthus phenomenon
D. Serum sickness
Which is type II hypersensitivity ?
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Delayed hypersensitivity
C. Immune complex mediated
D. Cytotoxic / cytolytic type
A person working in an abattoir presented with a papule on hand, which turned in to an ulcer. Which will best help in diagnosis______?
A. Trichrome Methylene blue
B. Carbol Fuschin
C. Acid Fast Stain
D. Calcoflour White
The earliest identifiable cells of T-Cell lineage during maturation are_______?
A. CD7+ Pro-T-Cells
B. CD5+ Pre-T-Cells
C. CD8+ Pro-T-Cells
D. CD8+ Pre-T-Cells
The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement______?
A. IgE
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgG
The reaginic antibody is______?
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgD
D. IgE
Secondary response is mediated by______?
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgE
Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000______?
A. Secretory piece
B. H chain
C. L chain
D. J piece
Which of the following is true about pasteurization ?
A. It kills bacteria and spores
B. It kills all bacteria except thermoduric bacteria
C. It kills 95% of microorganisms
D. Tubercle bacilli are destroyed
Oil and Grease are sterilized by_______?
A. Hot air oven
B. Auto claving
C. Irradiation
D. Ethylene dioxide
Hot air oven is used for sterilization of all EXCEPT______?
A. Glassware
B. Rubber tubes
C. Sharp instrument
D. Liquid paraffin
Endoscopes are sterilized by using_____?
A. Autoclaving
B. Boiling
C. Cidex
D. Gamma radiation
Killer and Helper cells are part of_______?
A. B cells
B. T cells
C. Monocytes
D. Macrophage
T cells multiplication is stimulated by______?
A. Macrolin
B. Heat
C. Bovine serum
D. Phytohaemagglutinin
Same or closely related antigens present in different biological species are known as_____?
A. Suquestrated antigens
B. Isoantigens
C. Haptens
D. Heterophile antigens
Rh incompatibility is which type of hyper sensitivity reaction ?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
The killer cells are associated with immunologic response_______?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
The prototype of Type II hypersensitivity reaction is_____?
A. Arthus reaction
B. SLE
C. Auto immune hemolytic anemia
D. Contact dermatitis
Cold sterilization refers to the process of sterilization by use of_______?
A. Ultra violet rays
B. Ultrasonic vibrations
C. Infrared rays
D. Gamma rays
A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is ?
A. Xenograft
B. Autograft
C. Allograft
D. Isograft
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Best Microbiology MCQs are given for preparation of Nursing jobs initial tests and interview. These are more helpful for joining Pak Army as a Captain or Major.
Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins ?
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgE
Active artificial immunization is induced by the administration of all of the following EXCEPT______?
A. Bacterial products
B. Toxoids
C. Vaccines
D. Antitoxins
Immunity that is conferred to the foetus by transfer of IgG and IgA antibodies is called as______?
A. Active acquired immunity
B. Passive acquired immunity
C. Natural active immunity
D. Passive natural immunity
The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with______?
A. IgM antibodies
B. Lysozyme
C. Mast cells
D. IgA antibodies
IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by_______?
A. Plasma cells
B. Activated macrophages
C. Lymphocytes
D. Platelet
Virus infected cell is killed by____?
A. Interferons
B. Macrophages
C. Neutrophils
D. Autolysis
Prozone phenomenon is due to______?
A. Disproportionate antigen antibody levels
B. Excess antigen
C. Excess antibody
D. Hyper immune reaction
Most sensitive test for antigen detection is_______?
A. Radioimmuno Assay
B. ELISA
C. Immunoflourescence
D. Passive hemaglutination
Complement binding immunoglobin via the classical pathway is_______?
A. IgG & igM
B. IgG & IgA
C. IgG & IgD
D. IgD & IgE
Function of Ig A is_____?
A. Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection
B. Circulating antibody
C. Kills virus infected cells
D. Activates macrophages
Antigen combining site of the antibody is______?
A. Idiotope
B. Paratope
C. Epitope
D. Hapten
Opsonisation is by_____?
A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM
E. Both C & D
Endotoxins are produced by_____?
A. Fungi
B. Gram +ve bacteria
C. Virus
D. Gram -ve bacteria
The antigen used in Weil Felix test is obtained from______?
A. Pseudomonas
A. coli
B. Proteus
C. Staphylococcus
Most of the drug resistances occurs due to______?
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Mutation
D. conjugation
Spores are disinfected by______?
A. Glutaraldehyde
B. Betapropiolactone
C. Formaldehyde
D. Hexachlorophen
E. Both A & C
Flash pasteurization of milk is done at what temperature_____?
A. 125°C for new seconds
B. 60°C for 15 minutes
C. 72°C for 5 minutes
D. 72° for 15 – 20 Sec
Mesophilic organisms are those that grow best at temperature of____?
A. -20°C to -7°C
B. -7°C to + 20°C
C. 25°C to 40°C
D. 55°C to 80°C
The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is____?
A. Transformation
B. Translation
C. Conjugation
D. Lysogeny
Dorset’s egg medium is used for cultivation of______?
A. Staphylococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. Gonococcus
D. Mycobacterium
Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria____?
A. Loefflers serum slope
B. Mc Conkey
C. Saboraud agar
D. Lowenstein Jensen medium
The best skin disinfectant is_____?
A. Chlorhexdine
B. Alcohol
C. Savlon
D. None of the above
The usual concentration of agar used in agar medium is______?
A. 10%
B. 2%
C. 5%
D. 15%
Louis Pasteur is not associated with_____?
A. Introduction of complex media
B. Discovery of Rabies Vaccine
C. Discovery of M. Tuberculosis
D. Disproved spontaneous regression theory
Anaerobic bacteria can be cultured in_______?
A. L-J medium
B. Robertson cooked meat medium
C. Loefflers medium
D. Sabourauds agar
Characters of exotoxin include all, except_____?
A. Protein polysaccharide complex
B. Heat labile
C. Highly potent
D. Has specific tissue affinity
Following reaction are produced by heterophil antigens except______?
A. Forssman antigen antibody reaction
B. Weil-Felix reaction
C. Paul bunnel reaction
D. Widal reaction
Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to_____?
A. Increase toxigenicity
B. Increase antigenicity
C. Reduce the antigenicity
D. reduce the toxigenicity
IgG has subclasses______?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Toxoids are____?
A. antigenic and toxic
B. antigenic and non-toxic
C. non-antigenic and toxic
D. non-antigenic and non-toxic
Human immunoglobulins are divided based on_____?
A. Functional differences
B. Structural differences
C. Complemented fixation
D. None of the above
IgG antibodies have a half-life of approximately_____?
A. 1 hour
B. 1 day
C. 1 week
D. 1 Month
The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______?
A. Erythema
B. Necrosis
C. Induration
D. Vasculitis
The medium of choice for growing most fungi is_____?
A. Blood agar
B. Tissue culture
C. Sabouraud’s agar
D. Thioglycollate medium
Robertsons cooked meat medium is best suited for cultivation of______?
A. Clostridia
B. S. epidermidis
C. Choleria
D. Mycobacterium
Dry heat destroys microorganisms by____?
A. Lysis
B. Oxidation
C. Hydrolysis of DNA
D. Coagulation of proteins
The anaphylaxis should be treated first with______?
A. Epinephrine
B. Steroids
C. Anti histamines
D. Antibiotics
Which of the following is not a koch’s postulate ?
A. The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue
B. When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease
C. Pure cultures can be obtained
D. Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the experimental animals
In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a_______?
A. Hapten
B. Carrier
C. Super antigen
D. Toxin
Which of the following is not true of boiling water_____?
A. It can kill hepatitis B virus
B. Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
C. Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Can kill vegetative bacterial cells
Sunlight acts as sterilizing agent because______?
A. Long wavelength
B. short wave lenght
C. Ozone
D. Heat
Tyndallisation is carried out for_____?
A. One day
B. Two successive days
C. 60 minutes
D. Three successive days
A type of immediately occurring reaction in which antigens combine with antibodies already attached to the surface of mast cells and basophils is called____?
A. Type I hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity
C. Type III hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity
Best method of sterilizing disposable syringes______?
A. Hot air oven
B. U.V. rays
C. Gamma rays
D. Boiling
Glutaraldehyde is preferred more than formaldehyde because______?
A. It has got more bactericidal activity
B. It has got more bacteriostatic activity
C. It has got no deleterious effect on the cement and lenses of instruments
D. Its application is easier
Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by_____?
A. Autoclaving
B. Hot air oven
C. UV-Radiation
D. Inspissation
Who first introduced solid media______?
A. Louis pasteur
B. Robert koch
C. Hensen
D. Ogston
Disinfection of the rooms can be done by using_____?
A. 20% phenol
B. High efficiency particle arrestors
C. 40% formaldehyde vapour
D. Chlorine gas
The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV irradiation______?
A. Lipids
B. Carbohydrates
C. Inorganic salts
D. Nucleic acids
The difference between sterilization and disinfection is that____?
A. Disinfection kills all spores but sterilization does not
B. Sterilization kills all spores but disinfection does not
C. Sterilization involves chemicals and disinfection involves physical methods
D. Sterilization is easier to achieve
Blood agar is______?
A. Simple media
B. Transport media
C. Enriched media
D. Differential media
By using phase contrast microscope______?
A. Internal structures are differentiated in living cells
B. Internal structures are differentiated in dead cells
C. Internal metabolic activities can be observed
D. External capsule formation can be observed
Exotoxins are_____?
A. Lipid-polysaccharide complex
B. Protein compound
C. Lipoprotein
D. None
Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phase of the bacterial growth curve______?
A. Lag
B. Exponential growth
C. Stationary phase
D. Decline
Hot air oven cannot be used for sterilizing_____?
A. Clothes
B. Instruments
C. Culture media
D. Needles
Type of receptor present on T-cells are_____?
A. Ig A
B. Ig G
C. Prostaglandins
D. CD4
In patients with asthma due to an allergic cause the serum levels of which immunoglobulin increase_____?
A. IgD
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest mean serum concentration in humans_____?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgG
D. IgM
The term animalcules to oral microorganisms is given by_____?
A. Wd miller
B. Leumenhoek
C. Robertson
D. Socranci
Immunoglobulin crossing placenta is______?
A. Ig M
B. Ig A
C. Ig G
D. Ig D
Sterilization is a process in which______?
A. Kill all pathogenic micro-organisms
B. Kill all non-pathogenic micro-organisms in the environment
C. Deactivate all pathogens not spores
D. Deactivate all spores and dill pathogenic organism
The key cell types involved in the acquired immunity include all EXCEPT_____?
A. B lymphocytes
B. Erythrocytes
C. T lymphocytes
D. Antigen presenting cells (APC
Complement factor through which common pathway begins_____?
A. C3
B. C5
C. C2
D. Protein B
Which of the following organisms does NOT react with gram’s stain ?
A. Actinomyces israelii
B. Candida albicans
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Streptococcus mutan
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Phase contrast microscopy is based on principle of_______?
A. Different refractive indices of object
B. Different reflective indices of object
C. Light scattering
D. Light attenuation
Cold sterilization refers to the process of sterilization by use of_____?
A. Ultra violet rays
B. Ultrasonic vibrations
C. Infrared rays
D. Gamma rays
The term epitope refers to_____?
A. complete antigen molecule
B. Hapten
C. Immunogen
D. Smallest antigenic determinant
The Process of attenuation can be achieved by all except______?
A. Growing bacteria in adverse environment
B. Growing bacteria in unconventional host
C. Serial passage in an experimental host
D. Repeated cultures in artificial media
Post streptococcal acute glomerulo nephritis is an example of_______?
A. Type I hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity
C. Type III hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity
Bacterial cell does not possess_____?
A. DNA
B. Ribosome
C. Mitochondria
D. Cell wall
The Manufacturing unit of surgical needle & sutures are sterilized by _____?
A. Gamma-Rays
B. X-Rays
C. Autoclaving
D. Boiling
A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains and haemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism ?
A. Bile solubility
B. Optochin sensitivity
C. Bacitracin sensitivity
D. Cataslase positive
Purpose of Sterilization is to eliminate______?
A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
C. Spore formers
D. Fungus
Cell wall deficient bacteria are______?
A. Escherichia Coli
B. Staphylococci
C. Spirochetes
D. Mycoplasma
The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is_____?
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgD
The function of IgD is_______?
A. Antigen recognition by B cells
B. Localization protection in external secretion
C. Compliment activation
D. Reagin activity
Cleavage of IgG molecule by Papin gives rise to:One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments_____?
A. One Fc fragment and two Fab fragments
B. One Fc fragment and four Fab fragments
C. Two Fc fragments and two Fab fragments
D. Two Fc fragment and one Fab fragment
Physical sterilization was discovered by______?
A. Robert Koch
B. Joeph Lister
C. John Hunter
D. Alexander flemings
The best method of sterilization of dressing powder is____?
A. Autoclaving
B. Hot air oven
C. Inspissation
D. Tyndallization
One of the following statement about statements about sterilization is not true_____?
A. Liquid paraffin → Dry heat
B. Glass syringes → Boiling at 169°C for 60 min
C. Flash pasteurization of milk → 72° C for 15 seconds, followed quickly by rapid cooling to 13°C for lower
D. Vaccines → Ethylene oxide
Moist heat kills all of the following EXCEPT______?
A. Brucella
B. Mycobacterium
C. Salmonella
D. Coxiella burnetti
Which component of the cell wall is responsible_______?
A. Region I
B. Region II
C. Region III
D. Boivin antigen
T cell matures in____?
A. Payers patch
B. Lymph node
C. Thymus
D. Busra of Fabricius
CD4 cells recognize the antigens in association with______?
A. MHC I
B. MHC II
C. MHC III
D. B-cell receptor
IL-1 is produced by______?
A. Helper T cells
B. Helper B cells
C. Monocytes
D. Macrophages
Grave’s disease is an example of type immunologic response______?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which of the following_______?
A. B-cells
B. Active T cells
C. NK cells
D. Plasma cells
Which of the following is a live vaccine______?
A. 17 D
B. Salk
C. Hepatitis
D. HDCV
Techoic acid is present in_____?
A. Cell wall of Gram positive organisms
B. Cell wall of Gram negative organisms
C. Cytoplasm of Gram positive organisms
D. Cytoplasm of Gram negative organisms
Which of the following are correctly matched ?
A. Transfer of antibody from mother to child is through colostrum and acquired passive immunity naturally
B. Injection of antibodies (Hepatitis) is artificially acquired passive immunity
C. Antigenic stimulus given by vaccine (polio) is artificial active immunity
D. All of the above
Selective media for MYCOBACTERIUM _____?
A. Sabourauds medium
B. Agar – agar
C. Lowenstein Jensen medium
D. Loefflers serum slope
Which of the following provides best gurantee for sterlization in the heat sterilizer ?
A. Using chemical indicator strip or pouch
B. Recording a temperature/ pressure readings from sterilizer guage
C. Using a bacterial spore test
D. Determining the ability of a sterilizer to kill the hepatitis B virus
The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum ?
A. IgG1
B. IgG2
C. IgG3
D. IgG4
Glassware are sterilized by_____?
A. Autoclaving
B. Hot air oven
C. Incineration
D. Formaldehyde
Function of T-lymphocyte is/are_____?
A. Production of interferon
B. Lymphokine production
C. Rosette formation
D. All of the above
Heptane is______?
A. Same as epitopes
B. Carrier required for specific antibody production
C. High molecular protein
D. None of the above
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to______?
A. B lymphocytes
B. T lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Histiocytes
VDRL is a______?
A. Slide flocculation test
B. Tube flocculation test
C. Tube agglutination test
D. Latex agglutination test
Secretory piece of IgA is synthesized in____?
A. T-cells
B. B-cells
C. Lymph nodes
D. Mucosal epithelium
Immunoglobulin consists of______?
A. 2 light, 2 heavy chains
B. 1 heavy, 2 light chains
C. 1 light, 1 heavy chain
D. 3 light, 1 heavy chain
The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as_____?
A. Clone
B. Epitope
C. Idiotope
D. Paratope
Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called______?
A. Opsonization
B. Chemotaxis
C. De coding
D. CFT
Immunoglobin, Which is produced first by the fetus in response to infection______?
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgD
Plasmid______?
A. Involved in multidrug resistance transfer
B. Involved in conjugation
C. Imparts capsule formation
D. Imparts pili formation
E. Both A & B
Operation theatres are sterilized by____?
A. Carbolic acid spraying
B. Washing with soap and water
C. Formaldehyde fumigation
D. ETO gas
Hospital dressing is best disposed by______?
A. Incineration
B. Dumping
C. Autoclaving
D. Burying
Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci_______?
A. Staphylococcus
B. Micrococcus
C. Sarcina
D. Aerococcus
Sporulation occurs in_______?
A. Lag phase
B. Log phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Decline phase
Graft versus host reaction is caused by______?
A. B-Lymphocytes
B. T-lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Leukocytes
Smith noguchi’s media is used for______?
A. Salmonella
B. Klebsiella
C. Spirochetes
D. Bacillus
Noguchi’s medium is used for______?
A. Bordetella
B. Brucella
C. Borrelia
D. None of the above
One of the following staining methods is an example of negative staining_______?
A. Gram’s staining
B. Fontana’s staining
C. India ink preparation
D. Zheil-Neilson’s staining
Bacteria with tuft of flagella at one end are called_______?
A. Monotrichate
B. Peritrichate
C. Bipolar
D. Lophotrichate
Exaltation is______?
A. Decreased virulence
B. Increased Virulence
C. No change
D. None
First released immunoglobulin after primary immunization_____?
A. IgD
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM
B.C.G untrue is____?
A. live vaccine
B. T.B vaccine
C. Orally administered
D. All of the above
Sterilisation control for moist heat is “or” The efficacy of the moist heat sterilization technique commonly used to sterlilize laboratory ware and culture media is tested by using______?
A. using Bacillus stearo thermo philus
B. Using non-pathogenic strain of clostridium tetani
C. Using chemical indicator
D. Using methylene blue
Endotoxins differ from exotoxins in that endotoxins_____?
A. are proteins
B. are heat labile
C. are highly antigenic
D. activate complement by the alternate pathway
Detergents used to disinfect dental instruments in the office kill bacteria by interfering with functional of the cell______?
A. wall
B. nucleus
C. membrane
D. Capsule
The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine doses not play a major role is________?
A. Urticaria
B. Asthma
C. Anaphylaxis
D. Arthus reaction
The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the_______?
A. VL domain
B. CL domain
C. CH1 domain
D. CH2 domain
Serum sickness syndrome is an example of_______?
A. Anaphylactic
B. Angioneurotic edema
C. Cell-mediated immunity
D. Systemic arthus reaction
Immunoglobulins are secreted by_______?
A. Macrophages
B. Plasma cells
C. T-cells
D. Neutrophils
A darkfield microscope would be useful in examining blood for_______?
A. Treponema
B. Actinomyces
C. Streptococcus
D. Mycobacterium
Disinfection frees the surface from_______?
A. Vegetative forms
B. Spore forms
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is________?
A. Hepatitis vaccination
B. Gamma globulin injection
C. Immune blood transfusion
D. Placental transfer of antibodies
Which of the following is an enrichment medium________?
A. Blood agar
B. Selenite F Broth
C. Mac Conkey agar
D. Nutrient Broth
Synthesis of antibodies in plasma cells occurs in_________?
A. Golgi body
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Nucleus
D. Mitochondria
Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is________?
A. IgE
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgA
The optimal time and temperature required for sterilization in an autoclave is_______?
A. 140°C x 2 hrs. x 10 lbs pr.
B. 121°F x 15 mts. x 15 lbs pr.
C. 121°F x 15 sec. x 15 lbs pr.
D. 121°C 15 mts. x 15 lbs pr.
Most antibodies are produced in the________?
A. Heart and the liver
B. Brain and the meninges
C. Thymus and the appendix
D. Spleen and the lymph nodes
Which of the following antibacterial substance is present in eggs and saliva ?
A. Lysozyme
B. Secretozyme
C. Albumin
D. Isozyme
The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to______?
A. Kill mircobes
B. Remove microbes
C. Inhibit microbial growth
D. Dehydrate microbial cells
Multiple drug resistance of bacteria depends on which of the following________?
A. Resistance transfer factor (RTF)
B. Colicigenic factor (Col)
C. Fertility factor (F+)
D. All of the above
All are not true for cultivation of anaerobic organisms except___?
A. Incubator
B. anaerobic jar
C. Refrigerator
D. Centrifuge
Rideal Walker test is used to determine the efficiency of the_____?
A. Disinfectant
B. Moist heat sterilisation
C. Antibiotics
D. Dry heat sterilization
Sterilization is_______?
A. Pathogens killed but spores are not affected
B. Only pathogenic micro-organisms killed
C. Non-pathogenic killed
D. All pathogenic and non-pathogenic microorganisms killed
Compared with autoclave, use of a dry heat over for sterilization has the following disadvantages_______?
A. Time-consuming
B. Less effective
C. Causes instruments to rust
D. Causes sharp instruments to dull
Which of the following is not a feature of anaphylaxis ?
A. Delayed reaction
B. Immediate reaction
C. passive transfer by serum
D. None of the above
Bacterial spores are destroyed by______?
A. Boiling at 100°C
B. Disinfection by hypochlorite solution
C. Autoclave
D. Pasteurisation
The Ig found in exocrine secretions is_______?
A. IgG
B. IgD
C. IgM
D. IgA
The interaction of antigens with antibodies on the surface of a mast cel leads to degranulation and anaphylaxis. The mast cell granules produce anaphylaxis because they contain_______?
A. Lysosomes
B. Proteolytic enzymes
C. Lymphotoxins
D. Vasoactive mediators
Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify_____?
A. Mycoplasma
B. Chlamydiae
C. Rickettsiae
D. Spirochaetes
The minimum time required for the sterilization of surgical instruments by moist heat at 134°C is_______?
A. 3 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 60 minutes
The best sterilization method for a hand-piece is________?
A. Ethylene oxide gas
B. dry heat
C. chemical vapour
D. All of the above
Example of immune complex hyper-sensitivity reaction is______?
A. Atopic allergy
B. Serum sickness
C. Transfusion reaction
D. Contact dermatitis
The chemotactic factor is________?
A. C2a
B. C3b
C. C4a
D. C5a
Steam under pressure in used in ________ sterilization?
A. Pasteurization
B. Autoclave
C. Kochs sterilizer
D. hot air oven
The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is_______?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
All are true about legionella pneumophilia except_______?
A. Aquatic bodies are main habitat
B. It can replicate in amoeba
C. Urine test is a reliable method
D. Person to person transmission
Each of the following viruses possesses an outer lipoprotein envelope except_______?
A. Varicella Zoster Virus
B. Papilloma Virus
C. Influenza Virus
D. Human immunodeficiency virus
Actinomycosis is a_____?
A. Aerobic bacterial disease
B. Anaerobic bacterial disease
C. Aerobic fungal disease
D. Anaerobic fungal disease
Which of the following is true about tetanus acquired through traumatic wound ?
A. Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the anterior horn dells in spinal cord
B. The tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin act on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse transmission
C. The patient should be given tetanus toxoid intravenously
D. Causes positive Nagler reaction
Pseudomonas aeruginosa________?
A. Produces heat stable enterotoxin
B. Causes Shangai fever
C. Cannot be destroyed at 55 degree at 1 hr.
D. Does not produce any pigment
Which is not true about vibrio cholera_____?
A. It is non-halophilic
B. Grows on simple media
C. Man is the only natural host
D. Cannot survive in extracellular environment
About Bacteroide True are all Except______?
A. Susceptible to many antibiotics
B. Present mainly in mixed infections
C. Most common species is B fragilis
D. Bile resistant anerobes
About N. gonorrhoea, all are true except_______?
A. Most common cause of urethritis is male
B. All stains are highly susceptible to penicillin
C. Wide spread axoregnic stains cause disseminated gonococcal infection
D. Found exclusively in human beings.
Dental Plaque adheres to tooth surface by______?
A. Dextran
B. Epithelial cells
C. Bacteria
D. Sucrose
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best demonstrated by_______?
A. Gram’s stain
B. H & E stain
C. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
D. PAS stain
The spirochete which is associated with fusospirochetosis is______?
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Treponjema pertenue
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Borrelia vincenti
Bacterial species which is protective or beneficial to the host is_______?
A. Streptococcus sanguis
B. Porphyromonas gingivalis
C. Treponema denticola
D. Spirochetes
An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain, and dry cough, sputum culture showed growth on charcoal yeast Extract Medium, the organism is_______?
A. H. influenza
B. Moraxella catarrhalis
C. Legionella
D. Burkholderia cepacia
Which one of the following enteric organisms is anaerogenic and non motile ?
A. Shigella sonnei
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Klebsiella pneumonia
The causative organism for cat-scratch disease is_______?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Donovania granulomatis
C. Bartonella henselae
D. Hemophilia ducreya
Erysipelas is caused by________?
A. Group B staphylococci
B. Group A steptococci
C. Gonococci
D. Pneumococci
Which of the following is obligate aerobe ?
A. Pseudomonas aerogenosa
A. coli
B. Proteus
C. diphtheria
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (SSS syndrome) is due to_______?
A. Enterotoxin A
B. Enterotoxin B
C. Enterotoxin D
D. Enterotoxin F
A 6 year old boy comes with abdominal pain, vomiting after consuming mild products within 6 hours. The most likely organism responsible is______?
A. Staph. aureus
B. Salmonella
C. B.Cereus
D. Clostridium botulinum
The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by______?
A. Transduction
B. Translation
C. Cell fusion
D. Conjugation
Antigen used in Weil-Felix reaction______?
A. E.coli
B. Haemophilus
C. Proteus
D. Staphylococcus
A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate EXCEPT_______?
A. Vancomycin
B. Imipenem
C. Teichoplanin
D. Linezolid
Culture medium used for Bordatella pertussis is_______?
A. Wilson Blair medium
B. Bile broth
C. Bordet Gengou medium
D. Robertson cooked meat medium
Pasteur developed the vaccine for______?
A. Anthrax
B. Rabies
C. Cholera
D. All of the above
Teichoic acid is present in cell walls of________?
A. Gram positive bacteria
B. Gram negative bacteria
C. Yeast
D. Protozoa
Pathogenic treponemas can be maintained in______?
A. Tissue culture
B. Chick embryos
C. Artificial media
D. Rabbit testis only
Borelia vincenti is a_____?
A. Mycoplasma
B. Mycobacteria
C. Spirochaete
D. Chlamydia
All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except_____?
A. Gram staining
B. Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital
C. Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysacharide
D. Colony morphology on saliva agar
A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?
A. Pasturella spp
B. Francisella spp
C. Bartonella spp
D. Brucella spp
Pneumococus can be differentiated from streptococcus by______?
A. Type of hemolysis
B. Gram staining
C. Growth characteristics
D. Bile solubility
Streptococcus is classified based on_______?
A. M Protein
B. Cultural characteristics
C. Bile Solubility
D. Cell wall carbohydrate
Leprosy bacilli can be grown in______?
A. Foot paid on nine branded armadilo
B. Tail of guinea pig
C. Testes of albino rats
D. Testes of guinea pig
Rapid diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with______?
A. Ziel Nelson
B. Kin Young stain
C. Auramine-Rhodamine stain
D. Giemsa stain
Commonest mycobacterial infection in tropical countries_____?
A. M. leprae
B. M. avium intracellulare
C. M. tuberculosis
D. Kansasi
Opacity around colonies of Clostridium perfringens is due to_______?
A. Theta toxin
B. Lecithinase
C. Desmolase
D. Cytokinin
Causative organism for gas gangrene______?
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Clostridium welchii
A. Coli
C. Strep. Faecalis
Rickettsiae______?
A. Multiply within living cell
B. Transmitted by arthropod vectors
C. Respond to tetracycline therapy
D. All of the above
False +ve for VDRL is seen in_____?
A. Yaws
B. Lepromatous Leprosy
C. Malaria
D. All of the above
The diagnostic investigation for syphilis is_______?
A. TPI test
B. VDRL test
C. TPHA test
D. FTAB test
E. Both C & D
Which organism causes prosthetic valve endocarditis within 60 days of surgery______?
A. Streptococcus Viridans
B. Staphylococcus epidermis
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Fungus
What is the transport medium for cholera______?
A. Tellurite Medium
B. Cary Blair Medium
C. Venkatraman – Ramakrishnan Medium
D. B & C
Which of the following are non-spore forming anaerobic bacteria that assume major significance in disease processes______?
A. Bacteroides fragilis
B. Fusobacterium nucleatum
C. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius
D. Actinomyces Israeli
E. All of the above
The diagnosis of gonorrhea is established by____?
A. Compliment fixation tests
B. Pili agglutination tests
C. Haemagglutination tests
D. All of the above tests
Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by______?
A. Streptococcus viridians
B. Haemolytic streptococci
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Nisseria
Growth factor needed for Salmonella______?
A. Tryptophan
B. Niacin
C. B-12
D. Citrate
Organism most frequently associated with urinary tract infections is______?
A. Neisseria gonorrhea
B. Escherichia coli
C. T-strain mycoplasma
D. Streptococcus fecalis
Neurotoxin of tetanus acts on_____?
A. Synapse
B. Muscle
C. Brain
D. Spinal card
Encapsulation in bacteria helps in______?
A. Spore formation
B. Decreased virulence
C. Prevent their phagocytosis
D. Oxygen effect
Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surfaces?
A. Capsule
B. Flagella
C. Pili
D. Mesosomes
Loss of capsule in bacteria is generally associated with______?
A. Decease in virulence
B. Loss of infectivity
C. Inability to spread through tissue
D. increase in invasiveness
Nagglers reaction is used in the diagnosis of_______?
A. Malaria
B. Whooping cough
C. Gas gangrene
D. Wool sorters disease
The commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercie bacilli______?
A. Acridine orange
B. Thioglavin
C. Congo red
D. Auramine and Rhodamine
Actinomycosis is caused by______?
A. Fungus
B. Acid fast, non-motile bacillus
C. Anaerobic, gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria.
D. Retrovirus
The facultative anaerobic bacteria are those who are______?
A. Unable to grow in the presence of oxygen
B. Unable to grow in the absence of oxygen
C. Able to grow in the presence of carbon dioxide
D. Able to grow in the presence of absence of oxygen
One of the following is a zoonotic disease_____?
A. Anthrax
B. Typhoid
C. Bacillary dysentery
D. Cholera
Common inhabitant of throat and tonsils is_____?
A. Alpha hymolytic streptococci (S. viridans)
B. Staphylococci
C. Beta hemolytic streptococci
D. Pneumococci
Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus is due to ________?
A. Pleomorphism
B. Elaboration of an enzyme that destroy penicillin
C. Penicillin analogue production
D. Lack of nucleic acid in the cell wall
Malignant pustule is referred to_______?
A. Facio-cervical actinomycosis
B. Cutaneous anthrax
C. Infected squamous cell carcinoma
D. None of the above
The major intestinal pathogens which are non-lactose fermenters are_____?
A. Salmonella
B. Klebsiella
C. Escherichia
D. Paracolons
Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following_______?
A. Salk vaccine
B. Tetanus toxoid
C. Sabin’s oral vaccine
D. All of the above
Which of the following is anaerobic_____?
A. E.coli
B. Bacteroides
C. Pseudomonas
D. Klebsiella
Grape bunch shaped colonies are seen in____?
A. Streptococcus
B. Staphylococcus
C. E.coli
D. Gonococci
Which of the following enzyme is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot pathogenic staphylococci______?
A. Lysozyme
B. Fibrinolysin
C. Coagulase
D. S protein
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except_____?
A. Though plasmids
B. Incorporating part of host DNA
C. Through bacteriophages
D. through conjugation
Bacteria with potent exotoxin is______?
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Pseudomonas
C. Shigella
D. Klebsiella
Wasserman test test is diagnostic of_______?
A. Syphilis
B. Gonorrhea
C. TB
D. Tyhoid
Phage conversion is required for_____?
A. Tularemia
B. Diptheria
C. Gonorrhoea
D. All o f the above
Anaerobic bacteria grow_______?
A. in the presence of oxygen
B. in the presence of nitrogen
C. in the absence of oxygen
D. differential media
The bacterial cell wall has all of the following properties except______?
A. It consists of a mixed polymer called peptidoglycon
B. It is the structure principally responsible for the reaction of gram staining
C. It is a unique flexible plastic structure
D. It contains D-isomers of amino acids
Each of the following can cause food poisoning except______?
A. Cl. difficile
B. Staphylococcus
C. Cl. welchii
D. Cl. botulinum
The following are applicable to bacterial genoms except______?
A. It is composed of DNA
B. It doe not contain histones
C. It is circular
D. Its DNA has both introns and extrons
Electron microscopic examination of the bacterial flora of necrotising ulcerative gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are______?
A. Cocci
B. Spirochetes
C. Bacteriophages
D. Filamentous rods
The structure in involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface is______?
A. Capsule
B. Fimbria
C. Flagella
D. None of the above
Signs of tyhoid fever is/are________?
A. Haemorrhage
B. perforation
C. Osteomyelitis
D. All of the above
In initial stages of typhoid, salmonella can be detected in_______?
A. Feacus
B. Urine
C. Blood
D. All of the above
On a stained slide, clostridium tetani has the appearance of a______?
A. Bunch of a
B. Chain of beads
C. Drum stick
D. Safely pin
The urine sample of a patient has been sent to the laboratory to look for Leptospira. The specimen is to be screened by use of the_______?
A. Scanning microscope
B. Inverted microscope
C. Dark ground microscope
D. Electron microscope
Which of the following fulfil all the criterias of kich’s postulates ?
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Mycobacterium leprae
C. N. gonorrhoeae
D. None of the above
Among The infectious diseases transmitted by food, one is_______?
A. Viral stomatitis
B. Diptheria
C. Tuberculosis
D. Typhoid fever
Black pigmented anaerobes include all of the following except_____?
A. Tannerella
B. Porphyromonas
C. Buccae
D. Prevotella
All are true about bordetella pertussis except______?
A. Most common cause is B. Petrussis
B. It may occur in children and young adult after vaccination
C. Bacteria culture from nasopharyngeal swab is the definitive diagnosis
D. Presence of antibodies in serum in diagnostic of the disease
A full course of immunization against. Telanus with 3 doses to Tetanus toxoid, confers immunity for how many years ?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Salivary peroxidise system is known to be effective agianst______?
A. Actinomyces viscosus
B. Lactobacillus acidophilus
C. Streptococcus mutans
D. Veilonella parvula
About Psedomonas. All are true except_____?
A. Strick aerobes
B. Can grow in disinfectants in hospital
C. Infection is mostly due to endogenous source
D. Most common organism is burn patient
Lepromin test is useful for_______?
A. Diagnosis
B. Prognosis
C. Treatment plan
D. Epidemiology
All are true about wide test except_______?
A. Base lines differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
B. O antibodies last longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
C. H antigen cannot differentiate between subtypes
D. High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative
Leptospirosis, all are true except_______?
A. Faeces & urine of rodents is the cause
B. Onset of IgM in 2 days
C. Incubation period is 10 days
D. It is sensitive to penicillin
Pathogenesis of diphtheria is attributed to_______?
A. Invasion
B. Endotoxin
C. Exotoxin
D. Capsule
Following are the characteristics of Vincent’s angina EXCEPT______?
A. Ulcerative gingivostomatitis
B. Caused due to malnutrition
C. A symbiotic infection
D. Caused by leptospira interrogans
ASO (Antistreptolysin 0) test is uesd for the diagnosis of______?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Typhoid fever
C. Rheumatie fever
D. Rickettsial fever
Group A carbohydrate of Str. pyogenes cross reacts with human______?
A. Synovial fluid
B. Myocardium
C. Cardiac valves
D. Vascular intima
The most frequently encountered clostridia species in gas gangrene is_______?
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium welchii
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Clostridium difficile
In small intestine, cholera toxin acts by_______?
A. ADP – ribosylation of the G regulatory protein
B. Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
C. Activation of GTPase
D. Active absorption of NaCI
Phospholipid used to investigate syphilis by the reagin test is______?
A. Cardiolipin
B. Plasminogen
C. Palmityl lecithin
D. Serine
Staphylococcal food poisoning includes the following features_____?
A. Incubation period of 24 hours
B. Requires immediate antibiotics
C. Common with dairy products
D. Heat labile enterotoxin
Fimbriae are demonstrated by ____?
A. Culture
B. Gram stain
C. Biochemical reaction
D. Haemagglutination test
The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is______?
A. Transduction
B. Translation
C. Lysogeny
D. Conjugation
cAMP reaction is shown by which streptococci ?
A. Group A
B. Group B
C. Group C
D. Group D
Cough plate method is used to identify____?
A. Y. pestis
B. Pertussis
C. Mycoplasma
D. M-Tuberculosis
Test for differentiating virulent form non-virulent tubercular bacilli____?
A. Aryl sulphatase test
B. Niacin test
C. Neutral red test
D. Catalase peroxidase test
The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are_____?
A. Gram positive organisms
B. Gram negative organisms
C. Mycoplasma
D. Virus infections
Negative staining is used to demonstrate_______?
A. Bacterial spore
B. Bacterial Flagella
C. Bacterial capsule
D. Bacterial fimbriae
Borrelia vincenti is always associated with______?
A. Spirochaetes
B. Fusiform bacilli
C. Treponema vincenti
D. None of the above
Bacteria acquire characteristics by all the following except_____?
A. Through plasmids
B. Incorporating part of host DNA
C. Through bacteriophages
D. Through conjugation
All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except_____?
A. Neisseria meningitides
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Legionella pneumophila
Chlamydia causes all of the following except_______?
A. Trachoma
B. Non-gonococcal urethritis
C. Pneumonia
D. Parotitis
Lancefields classification of B hemolytic streptococcus is based on______?
A. M Protein
B. Polysaccharide C antigen
C. Type of lipid in cell membrane
D. Physiological properties
Leprosy bacilli are transmitted from person to person by all except_____?
A. Dischange from nasal mucosa
B. From open sore
C. Through intact skin
D. Through breast milk
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical mycobacteria by____?
A. Niacin test
B. AFB staining
C. Pas staining
D. None of the above
In T.B cell mediated immunity is by_______?
A. CD 4*
B. CD 8*
C. B – lymphocytes
D. None of the above
Nagglers reaction detects______?
A. Coagulase
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Lecithinase
D. None of the above
Drumstick appearance is seen in_______?
A. Cl. tetani
B. Cl. tetanomorphum
C. Cl. sphenoids
D. All of the above
Q fever is caused by_____?
A. Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
B. R. prowozekii
C. R. quintana
D. C. burnetti
Actinomycetes is______?
A. Gram positive bacteria
B. Gram negative bacteria
C. Fungus
D. A yeast like form
True about VDRL test______?
A. Non – Specific
B. Slide flocculation test
C. Best followed for drug therapy
D. All of the above
Staphylococcus does not causes_____?
A. Osteomyelitis
B. Abscess
C. Scarlet fever
D. Pneumonia
Vibrio cholera was discovered by______?
A. Koch
B. Medintoff
C. John snow
D. Virchow
Virulence of Gonococcus is due to______?
A. Pili
B. Cell Membrane
C. Its intracellular location
D. Cytolytic enzymes
Culture medium for corynebacterium diphtheria_______?
A. Loefflers serum slope
B. Mc Conkey
C. Saborauds agar
D. Lowenstein Jensen Medium
Thumb print appearance in culture film smear is seen______?
A. Bacillus anthracis
2. Brucella species
3. Bordetelia pertussis
4. Clostridium weichii
Widal test is specific for____?
A. Plague
B. Leprosy
C. Pemhigoid
D. Typhoid
Granules in the corynebacterium diphtheria are called by following names, except_____?
A. Metachromatic granules
B. Refractile granules
C. Babes Ernst granules
D. Voluntin granules
Tuberculin test screens for____?
A. Hemoral immunity
B. Cell mediated immunity
C. Complement function
D. Phagocyte dysfunction
Which of the following have the capability to produce extra cellular polysaccharides_____?
A. Strep. Mutans
B. Strep. pyogenes
C. Peptostreptococcus
D. Enterococcus
The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is____?
A. Mannitol fermentation
B. Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes
C. Detection of coagulase
D. The catalase test
Which of the following characteristics of bacteria is not true?
A. Unicellular
B. Free living
C. Having either DNA or RNA
D. Cell wall containing muramic acid
Salmonella typhi can be isolated at different times from______?
A. Feaces
B. Blood
C. Urine
D. All of the above
The temperature required for cultivating mycobacterium_______?
A. 2 degree
B. 0 degree
C. 27 degrees
D. 37 degrees
Silver impregnation method of staining is useful to demonstrate_____?
A. Bacterial flagella
B. Spirochetes
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Gram -ve bacteria stain during gram staining______?
A. Blue color
B. Red color
C. Green
D. Colorless
The most common site where organisms are present in a typhoid carrier is______?
A. Spleen
B. Gall Bladder
C. Liver
D. Salivary gland
Diphtheria is pathogenic only when infected with_______?
A. Beta phage
B. Alfa phage
C. Lambda K12
D. Delta Phage
Which of the following is an acid-fast bacillus_______?
A. Mycobacterium bacilli
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Neisseria gonorrhea
D. All of the above
Group A B-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the pharynx may be followed in some by______?
A. Diphtheria
B. Typhoid fever
C. Rheumatic fever
D. Syphilis
Causative agents of Vincent’s angina_____?
A. Borrelia vincenti and fusobacterium fusiformis
B. Borrelia recurrents and bateroides
C. Borrelia burgoloferi and lactobacillus
D. Leptospira and Treponema pallidum
A protoplast is best characterized as a bacterial cell_______?
A. with a cell wall but free of a capsule
B. containing a cell wall and a capsule
C. Free of a cell wall and a capsule
D. Uniquely sensitive to penicillin
Which regards to temperature requirement, most pathogenic bacteria are_____?
A. Psychrophiles
B. Mesophiles
C. Cryophiles
D. Thermophiles
One of the following is an agglutination test in the diagnosis of typhoid____?
A. Widal test
B. Eleks test
C. Mantoux test
D. Wasserman test
Staphylococci typically occur in_______?
A. Pairs
B. Chains
C. Tetrads
D. Irregular clusters
In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by_____?
A. Blood culture
B. Widal test
C. Stool culture
D. Urine culture
The virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhea include all of the following except______?
A. Outer membrane proteins
B. IgA Protease
C. M-Proteins
D. Pili
The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in vivo from one bacterium to another by_____?
A. Conjugation
B. Rarefaction
C. Transduction
D. Transformation
One of the following is a treponemal test for diagnosis of syphilis______?
A. FTAB
B. Widal test
C. Wasserman test
D. Kahn test
For uniform staining reaction, morphology and biochemical activity it is advisable to study bacterial cultures during the_____?
A. Lag phase
B. Death phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Logarithmic phase
Organ of locomotion in bacteria is______?
A. Fimbria
B. Flagella
C. Capsule
D. Cell wall
Endotoxin have all but one of the properties given below____?
A. Produced by gram negative bacteria
B. Produced by gram positive bacteria
C. Not secreted outside the cell
D. Cannot be toxoided
Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor_____?
A. M protein
B. Pyrogenic exotoxin
C. Streptolysin 0
D. Carbohydrate cell wall
The commonest method of detection of diptheria carriers is___?
A. Schick test
B. Dick test
C. Casoni’s test
D. Charles’ test
The difference between gram positive and negative bacteria lies in their_____?
A. cell wall
B. cell membrane
C. Nuclear material
D. Mesosomes
The specific test for Treponema pallidum is_____?
A. VDRL
B. Kahn’s test
C. TPHA
D. Widal test
All of the following are true of streptococcus except____?
A. It’s group of lactic acid production bacteria
B. Shows adherence to dental enamel
C. Most common in humans
D. Most common is animals
Bacteria reproduce mainly by_____?
A. Budding
B. Binary fission
C. Sporing
D. Bacterial components produced by host cells
An oxidase-positive, gram-negative rod which produces a bluish-green pigment has been grown in culture from a swab obtained from an infected burn wound. This organism is susceptible to gentamicin, ticarcillin and tobramicin, but resistant to all the other antibiotics which of the following organisms is it likely to be ?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Klebsiella pnemoniae
C. Proteus miribilis
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
The causative organism of syphilis is_____?
A. Borrelia burgolorferi
B. Chalamydia trachomatis
C. Leptospira interrogans
D. Treponema pallidum
| 1. | Join Pak Army as an Army Officer | Click Here |
| 2. | Join Pakistan Navy as a Navy Officer | Click Here |
| 3. | Join PAF as a PAF Officer | Click Here |
